Current
Affairs

CHAPTER-1

1. Give an example pertinent______ the case.

(a) with

(b) on

(d) to

2. The reward was not commensurate_______the work done by us.

(a) for

(b) on

(d) order

3. Supposedly, digital voice discs, or DVDs as they are called, are _____ resistant to

scratching____ records

(a) much / than

(b) so / as

(d) far more / than

4. English is today the third ________ native language worldwide after Chinese and Hindi, with

some 380 million speakers.

(a) the most spoken

(b) the more spoken

(d) the least spoken

5. No clinical studies _____ in this child disease research so far.

(a) had completed

(b) have been completed

(d) had to complete

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6. I don't know why she didn't ask me how to do it as I _______ her.

(a) must have helped

(b) could have helped

(d) should have helped

7. We all think that Maria ________ an interesting person to meet as we _______ a lot of stories

about her so far.

(a) is / had heard

(b) can be / heard

(d) would be / have heard

8. Mike has been told he will have to pay the fine ________ his high rank in the military.

a) even if

b) furthermore

c) on grounds that

d) despite

9. In the following sentence a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the

sentence has an error.

(a) in pouring rain

(b) without either raincoats non umbrella

(d) We got caught

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

D C D C B B D D C

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CHAPTER-2

1. Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the keyword given in capital letters

CONFERRED

(a) Offered

(b) Divulged

(d) Advised

2. Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the keyword given in capital letters

INCLEMENT

(a) Pleasant

(b) Stormy

(d) Dignified

3. Pick the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence

meaningfully complete The proud king turned a deaf ear to the ____ of wise counsellors.

(a) Advices

(b) Advises

(d) Advice

4. Choose the words that best fits in the meaning of sentence He warned the workers against

supporting these antisocial policies, which he declared would ____rather than _____ the plight of

the common people

(a) Rescue; Destroy

(b) Encourage; Defy

(d) Empower; Improve

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5. Use one word substitution for: A contagious disease which spreads over a huge area.

(a) Atheist

(b) Flora

(d) Hangar

6. In each of the following question, a related pair of words or phrases is followed by four lettered

pairs of words or phrases. Select the lettered pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the

one expressed in the original pair. Lying: Perjury

(a) Statement: Testimony

(b) Seeing : Observing

(d) Eating: Dining

(e)

7. Subsequent: Previous

(a) Significant: Inconsequential

(b) Retrospect: Retrospective

(d) Caption: Legend

Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices

8. Lethargy

(a) serenity

(b) listlessness

(d) laxity

9. Sporadic

(a) epidemic

(b) whirling

(d) stagnant

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Select the correct meaning of the italicized idioms and phrases out of the four choices given.

10. He burnt his fingers by interfering in his neighbour’s affair.

(a) got himself into trouble

(b) burnt himself

(d) got rebuked

11. For the first week, the apprentice felt like a fish out of water.

(a) frustrated

(b) homeless

(d) uncomfortable

Given below are few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answerfrom the

four options given below:

12. Mala fide

(a) generous

(b) bad intention

(d) genuine

13. pro rata

(a) according to rate or proportion

(b) a summary or curriculum vitae

(d) for the good of the public

14. A persuasive message will fail if

(a) it does not focus on what is in it for the reader

(b) it only lists facts

(d) all of the above

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14

A A A B C A A D C A D B A D

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CHAPTER-3

1. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect

sentence(s).

I. It began with acquisitions in information technology and related services sector.

II. In pharmaceuticals, Wockhardt has bought C.P. Pharma of the United Kingdom for

$ 10.85 million.

III. Tata Tea has taken over Tetley of the UK, the world’s biggest tea bag maker, for $

430 million.

IV. With the processes, it has become the world’s second largest tea company.

(a) II and IV

(b) IV only

(d) I, II and IV

2. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect

sentence(s).

I. There are two main reasons for that predatory mood.

II. Having established a domestic presence, the component makers are now looking for an

international presence.

III. Second, having improved their productivity, quality and reliability, Indian companies feel

more confident about spreading their wings abroad.

IV. Various other factors are being attributed to this Indian penchant for the takeover game in

all sectors.

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(d) III and IV

3. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect

sentence(s).

I. Moving one by one step away from the expected with the graphics and photography can

also create reader’s interest.

II. Try using a conceptual image or photo to highlight your main message versus very first

thing to come to mind when thinking about your product of services.

III. Another form of contrast is in the actual design.

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IV. An unusual fold in a brochure or direct mail piece can add excitement.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) No error

4. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect

sentence(s).

I. The typeface that you choose for your print project is an important piece of the foremost

overall design process.

II. First, narrow down your choice by selecting the tone you want to present. (III) Typefaces

can convey personality.

III. For instance, if you are in the banking industry you might choose a classic serif font, such

as Garamond, to convey dependability.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) IV only

5. One or more of the sentence(s) is/are grammatically incorrect. You have to identify the incorrect

sentence(s).

I. Readability is crucial.

II. Be sure of the font we choose is legible and logical.

III. With all of the newest and interesting typefaces available today, it is tempting to

pick one that you think looks “cool”.

IV. This can work if you are going for an edgy look that will appeal to a youngaudience,

but your copy still needs to be easily understood.

(a) I and IV

(b) II only

(d) II and III

6. Unless he …………. this office , I will not say anything.

(a) Left

(b) Did not leave

(d) Had left

7. …………, I would help all the poor people.

(a) If I am rich

(b) If I was rich

(d) In case I am rich.

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8. I .…….. the news an hour ago.

(a) Have heard

(b) Heard

(d) Have been hearing

9. I waited for ………………………….. hour and then I went home.

(a) a

(b) an

(d) No article

10. The boy is not interested in playing …………?

(a) Doesn’t he?

(b) Isn’t he?

(d) Shouldn’t he?

11. He told us that we should never live beyond ……… means.

(a) His

(b) Their

(a) c) Our

12. May I request ……… you again to consider my case favourably.

(a) To

(b) Onto

(d) No proposition required

13. Known as devout and serious person, she also has …….. sense of humour.

(a) Better

(b) Quick

(d) Beautiful

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14. Galileo said, ’The Earth …….. around the sun’.

(a) Revolved

(b) Is revolving

(d) Is revolved

15. We ….. our work before the guests arrived at our house.

(a) Shall finish

(b) Have finished

(d) Shall have finished.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B A A A D C B 8 9 B C D A C C

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CHAPTER -4

1. The Communication within the organisation is known as________.

(a) Internal communication

(b) External communication

(d) Verbal communication

2. When words are used in communication, either spoken or written, this kind of communication is

known as:

(a) Verbal communication

(b) Non-verbal communication

(d) Downward communication

3. Non-verbal communication does not include:

(a) Body language

(b) Sign language

(d) Oral communication

4. The channel of communication which is mostly associated with gossip and rumours iscalled:

(a) Formal communication

(b) Grapevine

(d) Upward communication

5. ____________ to communication may occur if the transmitter and receiver assign different

meanings to the same word or use different words for the same meaning.

(a) Semantic barriers

(b) Physical barriers

(d) None of the above

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6. The word communication has been derived from the word communis which means_______

a) To care

b) To share

c) To provide information

d) Provide ideas

7. Success and failure in every communication depends on ______

(a) Feedback

(b) Receiver

(d) Information

8. Communication is a combination of four sciences-

(a) Anthropology, sociology, psychology and political science

(b) Anthropology, physiology, biology and political science

(d) Sociology, Political Science, Anthropology and Biology

9. What is one of the factor because of which communication is important?

(a) Distortion

(b) Human relations

(d) Goal orientation

Adjectives selected by both the participants and his peers are placed in _____

10. quadrant:

(a) Arena

(b) Blind

(d) Façade

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11. Arena quadrant is called as:

(a) Façade

(b) Blind

(d) Open

12. Adjectives not selected by the participants but selected by his peers are placed in:

(a) Façade

(b) Blind

(d) open

13. Workers feel involved in the organisation and participate in the management. This is called as

which flow of communication?

(a) Downward

(b) Upward

(d) Horizontal

14. Interaction between two persons is called as:

(a) vertical network

(b) circuit network

(d) star network

15. In which network each subordinate receives a command from a single authority or superior :

a) vertical network

b) circuit network

c) wheel network

d) star network

16. Which of the following is an example of a nonverbal message?

a) Yelling

b) Eye contact

c) Jargon

d) Mumbling

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17. The ability to communicate effectively

a) Is a natural talent that cannot be learned

b) Depends on the education level of those around you

c) Can be learned

d) Depends on not using technology to send messages

18. hand-held computer devices that can perform a number of things like receiving mails, sending

and receiving audio

(a) PDA

(b) Mobile Phones

(d) Blogs

19. The form of communication used most of the time for written messages to persons inside your

organization is called

(a) Memorandum

(b) Business letter

(d) Adjustment letter

20. Network channel of communication which is open to all members of the group-

(a) vertical network

(b) circuit network

(d) star network

21. Internet without use of multimedia is an example of:

(a) Visual Communication

(b) verbal communication

(d) Audio-visual Communication

22. Communication flow takes place between the same status/ level of hierarchy in the

organization:

(a) Downward

(b) Upward

(d) Horizontal

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23. Feedback can come in the form of

(a) Environmental noise

(b) Nonverbal communication only

(d) Verbal and nonverbal listener responses

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23

A A D B A B A A B A D B B B C B C A A D A D D

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CHAPTER-5

1. Which of these is not a barrier to listening?

(a) Physical barrier

(b) Linguistic barrier

(d) Written barrier

2. In the communication process, a receiver is the person who encodes an idea. message

interference. a message pathway. the person who decodes a message.

a) The person who encodes an idea

b) Message interference

c) A message pathway

d) The person who decodes a message

3. Listening is the________ part of communication.

(a) Receiving

(b) Feedback

(d) Channel

4.In listening, Concentration requires________________.

(a) Willingness and practice

(b) Capacity and practice

(d) Practice and behaviour

5. A good speaker should use __________to their advantage to keep an audience attentive.

(a) Loud Volume

(b) Gestures

(d) Tone

6. In listening, which behaviour disrupt the listening process?

(a) Doodling

(b) Shuffling papers

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(d) All The Above

7. Which amongst the following is a principle of effective listening-:

a) Diffidence

b) Noise

c) Conducive Environment

d) Listen for Ideas- Not just words

8. Impatient to listen to the main ideas, _______ listeners pay superficial attention, and are

interested only in the bottom line-

(a) Marginal Listener

(b) Non-Listener

(d) Evaluative Listener

9.Feedback is a listeners

(a) Verbal critique of your message

(b) Aversion to a message

(d) Verbal or nonverbal responses to a message

10. Which of the following sentences is least effective in driving for the sale?

(a) Visit our web site today to order your tickets for the Super Bowl

(b) We hope to hear from you soon

(d) Call our 800-number within 24 hours to place your order for the Mac II recorded

11. __________ listeners pay attention only to partial message and lack sensitivity to the

nuances, inner meanings, nonverbal subtexts involved in communication.

(a) Active Listener

(b) Non-Listener

(d) Evaluative Listener

12. ______ listeners focus on the content and the manner in which they are delivered.

(a) Active Listener

(b) Non-Listener

(d) Evaluative Listener

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13. Active and effective listening are combined and subsumed under listening.

(a) Active and effective

(b) Selective

(d) Evaluative

14. _______ listening is a type of listening where difference between sounds is identified.

a) Discriminative

b) Comprehension

c) Selective

d) critical

15. Comprehension listening is also known as:

(a) Full Listening

(b) Critical listening

(d) Active listening

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

D D A A C D D A D C A A A D A

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CHAPTER-6

1.In circular letters personal interest is created by using the word_________.

(a) You

(b) Our customers

(d) Dear customers

2. A Letterhead contains the following:

(a) Company logo

(b) Name and address of Registered Office, Corporate Office

(d) All of the above

3. The word “Confidential” super scribed on the envelope is a _________.

(a) Salutation

(b) Special marking

(d) Subject heading

4. The word ‘Report’ is derived from the Latin word:

(a) Reportane

(b) Reporte

(d) Repo

5. A/An __________is used for disseminating information to a large number of employees within

the organisation.

(a) Office circular

(b) Memorandum

(d) None of the above

6. MIS stands for:

(a) Management Infotainment System

(b) Management Information System

(d) Management Intellectual System

1 2 3 4 5 6

A D A A A B

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CHAPTER-7

1. E-mails can be filtered using the _____ option which prevents unwanted mails from entering

your inbox.

a. Junk Mail

b. Spam

c. Trash

d. All of the above

2.___________are routine reports prepared at regular time interval-daily, weekly, monthly

quarterly or annually.

(a) Periodic reports

(b) Formal reports

(d) Informal reports

3. The first opportunity to gain the reader's attention in a direct mail letter is

(a) In the attention line

(b) In the opening paragraph

(d) On the envelope

4. An example of a communication channel is

(a) face-to-face conversation

(b) feedback

(d) noise

5. In interpersonal communication, ethics

(a) are important

(b) stand in the way of honesty

(d) are not a consideration

6. The ____ option in e-mail helps us to retrieve old email communications.

(a) Find

(b) Search

(d) None of the above

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7. ___________ reports are usually short messages with natural, casual use of language.

(a) Conference

(b) Periodic

(d) Formal

8.Through e-mail companies are offering ____service to its employees that help them use tools

like Google drive drop box etc.

(a) Accounts

(b) Package

(d) All of the above

9. Identify which statement is not a feature of a professional e-mail

(a) Correspondence through e-mail should use Proper Grammar, correct spelling, tone,

courtesy, structure, content etc.

(b) It is suggested to use of ‘Emoticons’ - smileys, winks etc. in official correspondence.

firewalls against personal mails like Yahoo, Gmail etc.

(d) Avoid ‘spamming.’ Maintain a proper distribution list of recipients for your mails.

10. Conversion of data into a code is called

(a) Encryption

(b) Hypermedia

(d) Interface

11. The specialized or technical language as used in specific fields is called____

(a) Codes

(b) Jargon

(d) Hypertext

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12. Which of the following protocol is used by the web

(a) HTPT

(b) HTPH

(d) HTTP

13. Which of the following is a system of interlinked hypertext documents accessed via the internet

(a) Intranet

(b) Extranet

(d) None of the above

14. Which of the following is a web browser

(a) Google Chrome

(b) Internet Explorer

(d) All of the above

15. It allows cumbersome corporate knowledge to be maintained and easily access throughout the

company using hypermedia and Web technologies.

(a) Web Publishing

(b) Web Communication

(d) None of the above

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B A D A B B C C B A B D C D A

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LEGAL APTITUDE

CHAPTER 1

1. The Constitution derives its authority from……………..

A. Parliament

B. President of india

C. People of india

D. Judiciary

2. On which date our constitution came into force?

A. Nov 26, 1949

B. Jan 26, 1949

C. Aug 15, 1947

D. Jan 26, 1950

3 Equality before law and equal protection of law is given under.........

A. Article 13

B. Article 14

C. Article 15

D. Article 16

4. Article 17 says, .................... is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.

A. Discrimination

B. Untouchability

C. Unequality

D. Special preferences

5. Free Legal aid to the poor is given under................

A. Directive Principles of state policy

B. Fundamental Rights

C. Fundamental duties

D. Citizenship

6. ......................can be enforced by writs.

A. Fundamental duties

B. Directive Principles of state policy

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Legal rights

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7. .......................denotes Citizenship at the commencement of the constitution.

A. Article 5

B. Article 15

C. Article 20

D. Article 25

8. The Electoral college of President consists of ............

A. elected members of both houses of Parliament

B. nominated members of Legislative members of state

C. elected members of state legislative council

D. all the above

9. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the Union Territories are mentioned in

A. Fourth schedule

B. Fifth schedule

C. Sixth schedule

D. Seventh schedule

10. Maximum strength of the Loksabha fixed by the constitution is..........

A. 545

B. 552

C. 245

D. 250

11. The total number of Ministers including the Prime Minister in the Council of Ministers shall not

exceed............

A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 25%

12. Which of the following states does not have a Legislative council?

A. Bihar

B. Jharkhand

C. Maharashtra

D. Uttar Pradesh

13. Governor's power to make ordinances is given under............

A. Article 123

B. Article 213

C. Article 313

D. Article 131

14. ................is the highest court of appeal in our country.

A. Privy Council

B. Federal court

C. Supreme court

D. High court

15. ................ literally means "to have the body of".

A. Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus

C. Certiorari

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D. Quo Warranto

16. Our Constitution was 1st amended in the year.....

A. 1947

B. 1949

C. 1950

D. 1951

17. .................... Amendment Act is also known as Mini-Constitution.

A. 2nd

B. 42nd

C. 86th

D. 91st

18. Parliament consists of.............

A. President

B. Lok Sabha

C. Rajya Sabha

D. All the above

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

C D B B A C A A A B B B B C A D B D

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Ch.2A - Indian Contract Act

1. The Indian Contract Act came into force on

(a)1st July, 1872

(b)1st September, 1872

(d) 1st September, 1930

2. A contract is a combination of two elements

a) Agreement & Obligation

b) Agreement & Promise

c) Offer & Obligation

d) Promise & Enforceability

3. The essential elements of a valid contract are

a) Consensus ad idem

b) Genuine consent between parties

c) Terms of the contract to be certain

d) All of the above

4. An offer would lapse if

a) Not accepted in the specified time

b) Offeror dies

c) Offeree dies

d) All of the above

5. A contract over telephone is not valid if

a) It is not audible

b) Call does not come in business hours

c) The call comes on a personal number

d) None of the above

6. Who defined consideration is defined – “as an act or forbearance of one party, or the

promise thereof is the price for which the promise of the other is bought”.

a) Sir Fredrick Pollock

b) Ms. Currie

c) Sir Ronald pollock

d) Sir Fredroger

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7. In Chinnaya v. Ramaya, (1882) case, it laid which of the following characteristic of Indian

Contract Act.

a) Stranger to the consideration may maintain a suit

b) Consideration at the desire of the promisor

c) Valid offer

d) Legal consideration

8. A person who is not a party to a contract cannot sue upon it even though the contract is

for his benefit is explained in which of these

a) Executed Contract

b) Privity of Contract

c) Executory contract

d) Valid Offer

9. An engagement to marry someone later is a …………..kind of contract.

a) Executed Contract

b) Executory Contract

c) Future Contract

d) B & C

10. What are the rules governing consideration

a) Consideration may be an act of abstinence or promise

b) Consideration must be real and not vague

c) Consideration need not be lawful

d) a & b

11. When is an agreement without consideration valid

a) Made out of natural love & affection

b) It’s a gift

c) a & b

d) None of the above

12. Which is a contract uberrimae fidei

a) Issue of Company Prospectus

b) Issue of advertisement

c) Family matter

d) a & c

13. A boss dominating his employee to work during non working hours is known as

a) Coercion

b) Misrepresentation

c) Undue Influence

d) None of the above

14. Which of these agreements are void as being against public policy but they are not illegal:

a) Agreements in restraint of parental rights

b) Agreement with a minor

c) Agreement with a lunatic

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d) Agreement for an unlawful object

15. In the case of breach of contract, the injured party may

a) Sue for specific performance

b) Sue for damages

c) Sue on quantum meriut

d) All of the above

ANSWER KEY

1B 2A 3D 4D 5A

6A 7A 8B 9D 10D

11C 12D 13C 14A 15D

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Ch.2B – LAW OF TORTS

1. The word “tort” is derived from the latin word

a) Tortum

b) Tortis

c) Tortuf

d) Tortie

2. Tort means a

a) Civil wrong

b) Criminal wrong

c) None of these

d) a & b

3. Injuria sine damnum means

a) Injury without damage

b) Legal rights

c) Injury without major damage

d) None of the above

4. Is this a kind of tortious liability

a) Absolute liability

b) Vicarious liability

c) A & b

d) None

5. When a principal is held liable for the wrongful acts of his agent the liability is known as

a) Vicarious liability

b) Strict liability

c) Tortuous liability

d) Absolute liability

ANSWER KEY

1A 2A 3A 4B 5A

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CH.3- ELEMENTS OF COMPANY SECRETARY LEGISLATION

1. Mission of ICSI is

a) To be a global leader in promoting Good Corporate Governance

b) To develop high calibre professionals facilitating good Corporate Governance

c) Speak the Truth, Abide by the Law

d) All of the above

2. What are the core values of ICSI

a) Integrity

b) Ethics

c) Reliability

d) All of the above

3. ICSI functions under the jurisdiction of

a) Ministry of Finance

b) Companies Act, 2013

c) Ministry of Corporate affairs

d) None of the above

4. Every Private company having a Paid up share capital of …….. should appoint a whole time

company secretary.

a) Five crore

b) Ten crore

c) One crore

d) 10lakhs

5. Company secretary in practise can also act like a

a) Share transfer agent

b) Stock broker

c) Issue house

d) All of the above

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6. A company secretary in practise can advise companies under these acts

a) Depositories Act

b) Foreign exchange & management Act

c) Arbitration and conciliation Act

d) All of the above

7. Company Secretary in Practice can appear as ‘Authorised Representative’ beforea) Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)

b) Competition Commission of India (CCI)

c) National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

d) All of the above.

ANSWER KEY

1B 2D 3C 4B

5D 6D 7D

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CH.4 – Elements of Company Law

1. Which of the following case clearly established the principle that company is a legal person

distinct from its members?

a) Saloman Vs Saloman & co ltd

b) Salman Vs Saloman & co ltd

c) Smith vs Anderson & co ltd

d) Saloon Vs Saloon & Co ltd

2. Registration of a company is

a) Compulsory

b) Not compulsory

c) Compulsory in some cases

d) None of the above

3. The striking characteristics of a Company are

a) Unlimited Liability

b) Limited liability

c) Common seal

d) None of the above

4. The members of a Company become personally liable if the membership falls below

prescribed minimum and the business is carried on for

a) More than 15days

b) More than 30days

c) More than 1year

d) More than 6months

5. As per ……. of the Companies Act,2013 “company”means a company incorporated under

Companies Act,2013 or under previous company law

a) Section 2(3)

b) Section 2(20)

c) Section 2(25)

d) Section 2(12)

6. Shares of the company are said to be

a) Immovable property

b) Movable property

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c) Tangible property

d) Permanent property

7. Statement A : A company dies with death of its shareholders

Statement B : In the case of Private Company, every member owing fully paid up shares can

freely transfer shares held by him.

Select the correct answer from the option given below

a) Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect

b) Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct

c) Statement A & Statement B both are incorrect

d) Statement A & statement B both are correct

8. Perpetual succession means

a) Members may go and members may go but the company goes on forever .

b) Members may come and members may come but the company goes on forever.

c) Members may come and members may go but the company goes on forever.

d) Members may come and members may come but the company cannot go on forever.

9. …………………have homogenous members

a) Partnership firm

b) Hindu Undivided Family

c) A private limited company

d) Sole proprietorship

10. A company is legally required to have its accounts audited by a

a) Accountant in practise

b) Company Secretary

c) Chartered Accountant

d) Cost Accountant

11. The liability of the members of a company is limited to the extent of the …. of shares held by

them.

a) Nominal Value

b) Market Value

c) Value decided by SEBI

d) Profit value

12. A private company cannot have more than

a) 200 members including past and present employees

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

b) 250 members excluding past and present employees

c) 200 members excluding past and present employees

d) 200 members excluding past but including present employees

13. ”Body Corporate ” or ”Corporation” includes a company incorporated outside India does not

include ….

a) Companies registered under earlier company law before companies Act,2013 come

into force

b) Co-operative society registered under any law relating to co operative societies

c) Any other body corporate which the Central Government may notify

d) B or C

14. Shares of Public Companies are

a) Freely transferrable

b) Restricted transferability

c) Freely transferrable after Government approval

d) Freely transferrable after shareholders approval.

15. In a private Company there must be not less than

a) Two persons

b) Three persons

c) Two hundred presons

d) Seven persons

16. Private Company which is a subsidiary of a public company is treated as

a) Private Company

b) Public Company

c) Government company

d) Limited Company

17. The minimum paid up share capital of a Public Company

a) One lakh

b) Five lakhs

c) Ten lakhs

d) Such other amount as may be prescribed

18. Section 8 company

(i) Prohibits the payment of dividend

(ii) Does not earn any profit

(iii) Intends to apply its profit for promoting its objects

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

Choose the correct option

a) (i) & (iii) is correct

b) (i) & (ii) is correct

c) (ii) & (iii) is correct

d) (i), (ii) & (iii) is correct

19. Section 2(45) of the Companies Act,2013 defines a ”Government company ” as any company

in which not less than …. of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, or

by any State Government or Government, or partly by the Central Government or partly by

one or more State Governments.

a) 25%

b) 35%

c) 51%

d) 49%

20. With regards to Associate company, “Significant influence” means

a) Control of atleast 20% of the total voting power

b) Control of atleast 25% of the total voting power

c) Control of atleast 20% of the total shareholding

d) Control of atleast 20% of the total debt capital

21. Small company clause does not apply to

a) Holding or subsidiary company

b) Company registered under section 8

c) Company governed by any special Act

d) All of the above

22. What is an “inactive company”

a) A company which has not filed its financial statements and annual returns during the

last two financial years

b) A company with no directors

c) A company incorporated in an improper manner

d) A company which does very less business in a year

23. Maximum number of directors in a One Person Company

a) Two

b) One

c) Fifteen

d) Three

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

24. An independent director reappointed for second term can be removed by

a) Ordinary Resolution

b) Special resolution

c) Ordinary resolution and no opportunity of being heard

d) Special resolution and an opportunity of being heard

25. Which of these directors cannot be removed by Ordinary resolution

a) Independent Director in his first term

b) Whole time director

c) Director appointed by NCLT

d) Alternate director

26. How many board meetings does a Section 8 company need to hold

a) Four board meetings in a year

b) One board meeting in each half of the calendar year

c) Two board meetings anytime during the year

d) Two board meetings in a financial year

27. Annual general meeting can be called on

a) Sunday at 11am

b) 15th August at 10.30am

c) 1

st September at 7.30 pm followed by dinner

d) 10th December at 8.00am

28. In annual general meeting, all business to be transacted thereat shall be deemed special,

other than—

a) Sale of a factory

b) Appointment of Marketing manager

c) Declaration of dividend

d) Rights issue of shares

29. Which company needs to constitute a CSR Committee

a) net worth of Rs. 100 crore or more, or turnover of Rs.5000 crore or more or a net

profit of Rs. 5 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year.

b) net worth of Rs. 500 crore or more, or turnover of Rs.1000 crore or more or a net

profit of Rs. 5 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year.

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

c) net worth of Rs. 5 crore or more, or turnover of Rs.1000 crore or more or a net profit

of Rs. 15 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year.

d) net worth of Rs. 500 crore or more, or turnover of Rs.500 crore or more or a net profit

of Rs. 1 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year.

30. A business dilemma exists when an organizational decision maker faces a choice

between two or more options that will have various impacts on:

a) Profitability

b) Competitiveness

c) Stake holders

d) All of the above

ANSWER KEY

1A 2A 3B 4D 5B

6B 7C 8C 9B 10C

11A 12C 13D 14A 15A

16B 17D 18A 19C 20A

21D 22A 23C 24D 25C

26B 27A 28C 29B 30D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CH 5 - LEGAL TERMINOLOGY & MAXIMS

1.ab initio means _____

a) 3 From the middle

b) From the beginning

c) From the base

d) From the end

2. ad hoc means______

a) From the beginning

b) Not interested to be able to be adapted to others purpose

c) To the same thing

d) To infinity

3. ad idem means _____

a) From the beginning

b) To the same thing

c) To infinity

d) From the base

4. ad infinitum means ______

a) From the beginning

b) To the same thing

c) To infinity

d) From the base

5. ad valorem means

a) ccording to value

b) To the same thing

c) To infinity

d) Hear the other side

6. Audi alteram partem means______

a) According to value

b) To the same thing

c) To infinity

d) Hear the other side

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

7. Bona fide means_______

a) Hear the other side

b) In good faith

c) In fact

d) In law

8.de facto means______

a) Hear the other side

b) In good faith

c) In fact

d) In law

9. de jure means _____

a) Hear the other side

b) In good faith

c) In fact

d) In law

10. de novo means______

a) In fact

b) In law

c) A new

d) Outside of

11. ex gratia means _____

a) By virtue of an office

b) Against the person

c) Guilty act

d) As a matter of grace or favour

12. ex officio means ______

a) By virtue of an office

b) Against the person

c) Guilty act

d) As a matter of grace or favour

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

13.ex parte means _______

a) Expression used to signify something done or said by one person not in the presence of his

opponent.

b) Expression used to signify something done or said by one person not in the presence of his

friend.

c) Expression used to signify something done or said by one person not in the presence of his

enemy.

d) All of above

14.ictus reus means______

a) By virtue of an office

b) Against the person

c) Guilty act

d) As a matter of grace or favour

15. In personam means _____

a) By virtue of an office

b) Against the person

c) Guilty act

d) As a matter of grace or favor

16.In rem means____

a) Within the powers

b) Between living person

c) Amongst other things

d) Against whole world

17. Inter alia means___

a) Within the powers

b) Between living persons

c) Amongst other things

d) An act

18. Inter vivos means_____

a) Within the powers

b) Between living persons

c) Amongst other things

d) An act

19. Ipso facto means____

a) Between living persons

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

b) By the mere fact

c) By the law itself

d) A pending suit

20. Ipso jure means____

a) Between living persons

b) By the mere fact

c) By the law itself

d) A pending suit

21. Lis pendens means___

a) Between living persons

b) By the mere fact

c) By the law itself

d) A pending suit

22. Locus standing means___

a) A guily mind

b) Signifies a right to be heard

c) By the mere fact

d) A pending suit

23. Mens rea means

a) A guily mind

b) Signifies a right to be heard

c) By the mere fact

d) A pending suit

24. Mesne profits means ____

a) The profits which a person in wrongful possession of the property actually received.

b) The profits which a person in legal possession of the property actually received.

c) The profits which a person in lawful possession of the property actually received.

d) None of above

25. Modus operandi means___

a) During litigation

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision.

c) Mode of operating

d) For a consideration

26.mutatis mutandis means _____

a) During litigation

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision.

c) With the necessary changes

d) For a consideration

27. Obiter dictum means___

a) During litigation

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision.

c) With the necessary changes

d) For a consideration

28. Pendente lite means

a) During litigation

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision.

c) With the necessary changes

d) For a consideration

29. Quid pro quo means

a) During litigation

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision.

c) With the necessary changes

d) For a consideration

30. Ratio decidendi means____

a) Reason for deciding, the grounds to decision

b) An opinion of law not necessary to the decision

c) With the necessary changes

d) For a Consideration

1 B 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 A

6 C 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 C

11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 B

16 D 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 B

21 C 22 D 23 B 24 A 25 A

26 C 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

LOGICAL REASONING

BLOOD RELATIONS

1. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, “He is the son of the only son of my mother.”

How is Suresh related to that boy?

a) Brother

b) Uncle

c) Cousin

d) Father

2. Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the

daughter of my father’s wife.” How is boy playing football related to Deepak?

a) Son

b) Brother

c) Cousin

d) Brother-in-law

3. A is D' brother. D is B's father. B and C are sisters. How is A related to C?

a) Son

b) Grandson

c) Father

d) Uncle

ANSWER KEY

1D 2B 3D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CODING DECODING

1. If in certain code, LUTE is written as MUTE and FATE is written as GATE, then how will BLUE

be written in that code ?

a. CLUE

b. FLUE

c. GLUE

d. SLUE

2. if in certain code MADRAS is written as NBESBT how is BOMBAY is coded in that language?

a. CPNCBX

b. CPOCBZ

c. CPNCBZ

d. None of these

3.In a certain code, language , OPERTAION is written as NODQBUJPO. How is INVISIBLE written

in that code?

a. JOWJTJCMF

b. HMUHTJCMF

c. JOWJTHAKD

d. HMUHTHAKD

4.If POND is closed as RSTL, how is HEAR written in that code ?.

a. GHIJ

b. JIGZ

c. GHIZ

d. JCLZ

5. In a certain code ,TELEPHONE is written as ENOHPELET . How is ALIGATOR written in that

code ?

a. ROTAGILA

b. ROTAGILE

c. ROTAGAIL

d. ROTEGILA

6. In a certain code CAT , is written as SATC and DEAR is written as SEARD. How would SING be

written in that code ?

a. BGINS

b. SINGS

c. SGNIS

d. GNISS

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

7. if SPIDER is written as PSDIRE in a certain code; how would COMMON be written in that code?

a. OCOMMO

b. OCMOMN

c. OCMMNO

d. OCMMON

8. ln a certain language POPULAR is coded as QPQVMBS; which word be coded as GBNPVT?

a. FARMER

b. FRAMES

c. FAMOTH

d. FAMOUS

e. FARMES

f. None of these

9. ln a certain language COVET is written as FRYHW ,which word be written as SHDUO?

a. QUAKE

b. STINK

c. TIEVP

d. REPAY

e. PEARL

f. None of these

10. In a certain language REMOTE is coded as ROTEME which word would be coded as PNIICC?

a. NPIICC

b. PINCIC

c. PICCIN

d. PICNIC

11. in a certain language, DECEMBER is written as ERMBCEDE, Which word will be written as

ERMBVENO in that code ?

a. AUGUST

b. OCTOBER

c. SEPTEMBER

d. NOVEMBER

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

12, In a certain Language , MACHINE is coded as LBBIHOD, which word would be coded as SL

TMFNB?

a. RSKLEMA

b. RMSNEOA

c. TMUNGMC

d. TKULGMC

e. TMUNGOC

f. None of these

13. In a certain language ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO , which would be written as

DNRWLUA?

a. COSGOLT

b. TOGCLOS

c. TOGSOLC

d. CLOSGOT

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

A B B B A B C D E D D D D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

NUMBER / SYMBOL CODING

1. P5QR, P4QS, P3QT, _____, P1QV

a) PQW

b) PQV2

c) P2QU

d) PQ3U

2. If RED is coded as 6720, then how would GREEN be coded ?

a) 1677199

b) 1677209

c) 16717209

d) 9207716

3. If A = 2, M = 26, Z = 52 then BET = ?

a) 44

b) 54

c) 64

d) 72

ANSWR KEY

1C 2B 3B

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

SYLLOGISM

1. Statements: I. Some actors are singers.

II. All the singers are dancers.

Conclusions: I. Some actors are dancers.

II. No singer is actor.

a) Only (1) conclusion follows

b) Only (2) conclusion follows

c) Either (1) or (2) follows

d) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

e) Both (1) and (2) follow

2. Statement: I. All tigers are birds.

II. Some birds are cows.

Conclusions: I. Some cows are birds.

II. Some tigers are cows.

a) if only I follows

b) if only conclusion II follows

c) if either I or II follows

d) if neither I nor II follows

e) if both I and II follow.

3. Statement: I. Many actors are directors.

II. All Directors are dancers.

Conclusions: I. Some actors are dancers.

II. No director is an actor.

a) if only I follows

b) if only conclusion II follows

c) if either I or II follows

d) if neither I nor II follows

e) if both I and II follow.

ANSWER KEY

1A 2E 3A

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CLOCKS

1. A clock is started at noon. By 10 minutes past 5, the hour hand has turned through :

a) 145°

b) 155°

c) 160°

d) 150°

2. An accurate clock shows 8 o’ clock in the morning. Through how many degrees will the hour

hand rotate when the clock shows 2 o’ clock in the afternoon ?

a) 144°

b) 150°

c) 168°

d) 180°

Answers ;

1 2

C D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CALENDAR

1. . What was the day of the week on 17th June , 1998?

a) Monday

b) Tuesday

c) Wednesday

d) Thursday

2. If 30th June, 1991 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was 7th April, 1992?

a) Sunday

b) Monday

c) Tuesday

d) None of these

3. Which will be the next leap year after 2096?

a) 2100

b) 2102

c) 2104

d) 2108

ANSWER KEY

1C 2C 3C

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

LOGICAL SEQUENCE TEST

1. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

I. Mother

II. Child

III. Milk

IV. Cry

V. Smile

a) 1, 5, 2, 4, 3

b) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

c) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

d) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

2. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.

I. Sentence

II. Chapter

III. Letter

IV. Book

V. Word

VI. Paragraph

a) 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3

b) 4, 2, 6, 1, 5, 3

c) 4, 6, 1, 2, 3, 5

d) 4, 6, 2, 5, 1, 3

3. Arrange the following in a logical order :

I. Frog

II. Eagle

III. Grasshopper

IV. Snake

a) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

b) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1

c) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

d) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1

1B 2B 3C

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

NUMBER,RANKING & TIME SEQUENCE TEST

1. If Malik finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of the boys and fourth from the left, how

many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in this line ?

a) 15

b) 12

c) 17

d) 13

2. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence:0, 6, 24,60,120,210 ?

a) 240

b) 290

c) 336

d) 504

3. If the second day of a month is a Friday, which of the following would be the last day of the

next month which has 31 days?

a) Sunday

b) Monday

c) Tuesday

d) Data inadequate

e) None of these

1D 2C 3B

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

ALPHABET TEST

1. The following four words are arranged in alphabetical order, which word will come in the second

place.

a) Electric

b) Elector

c) Elect

d) Electrode

2. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately

preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

3. PAT, PEN, PIN, POT ?

a) PIG

b) PET

c) PUT

d) POT

1B 2A 3C

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

DECISION MAKING

. Details of applicants are given below in the questions. On the basis of the following course of

action which is based on the data given above, mark the answer.

1. Manika is a B.Sc. Graduate with 70% marks and has completed PG in M.Sc. She completed 27

years of age in 2015 and has 3 year's experience as a Maths Faculty. She is ready to join

probation period of one year.

a) if case is to be referred to Principal.

b) if case is to be referred to Vice Principal.

c) if candidate is to be selected.

d) if information is inadequate to take a decision.

e) if candidate is not to be selected.

2. Mamta is a graduate in B.A. and B.Ed. with 75% and 70% respectively. She has been

working as a professor in Math for 5 years and has freelancing experience of 2 years.

Mamta’s age is 30 years and she is ready to join 2 year probation.

a) if case is to be referred to Principal.

b) if case is to be referred to Vice Principal.

c) if candidate is to be selected. if

d) information is inadequate to take a decision.

e) if candidate is not to be selected.

3. Shobha, a 29-year-old science graduate with 70% marks in her graduation has 53%

marks in her B.Ed. and she also has an Arts with Maths graduation securing 80% marks.

She also worked with Satyam for a span of 5 years and she is willing to join the probation

period for 1 year.

a) if case is to be referred to Principal.

b) if case is to be referred to Vice Principal.

c) if candidate is to be selected.

d) if information is inadequate to take a decision.

e) if candidate is not to be selected.

1C 2C 3A

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

ANALOGY

1. Insect : Disease :: War : ?

a) Army

b) Defeat

c) Arsenal

d) Destruction

2. Book : Cover :: Painting : ?

a) Example

b) Wall

c) Colour

d) Frame

3. Fruit : Banana :: Mammal : ?

a) Cow

b) Snake

c) Fish

d) Sparrow

1D 2D 3A

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

ASSERTION AND REASON

1. Assertion: Humans have evolved from an ape-like species of primates.

Reason: There are many fossils that support the theory of evolution in case of humans.

Choose one from the followinga) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of

the Assertion.

b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of

the Assertion.

c) Our Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

e) Both the statements are false.

2. Assertion (A):

AIDS does not have a vaccine.

Reason (R):

The AIDS virus alters its genetic code.

a) A is true but R is false.

b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

c) A is false but R is true.

d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

e) Both A and R are false

3. Assertion (A) :

Pressure cookers are fitted with ebonite handles.

Reason (R) :

Ebonite is strong.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true

1B 2B 3C

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTIONS

1. Statement: „You are expected to be frank and objective while writing your self-appraisal report‟.

– Instruction for writing self-appraisal report. Assumptions:

a) Unless cautioned, people may tend to be a little shy and less objective while writing their

self-appraisal report.

b) Every self-appraisal report helps the person in his further development.

Answer : In a statement, the author advises, while writing Self Appraisal report to be expected

frank & objective. I. Unless cautioned, people may tend to be a little shy and less objective while

writing their self-appraisal report. ⇒ this could be the assumption because if people aren‟t less

objective and shy then why would author tell them that explicitly that they are expected to be

objective.

II. Every self-appraisal report helps the person in his further development. ⇒ This cannot be the

assumption as it‟s nowhere mentioned in the statement that such report helps development. Here,

we don‟t have to use our real-world-logic which states otherwise.

2.Statement:

"If you trouble me, I will slap you." - A mother warns her child.

Assumptions:

I. With the warning, the child may stop troubling her.

II. All children are basically naughty.

a) Only assumption I is implicit

b) Only assumption II is implicit

c) Either I or II is implicit

d) Neither I nor II is implicit

e) Both I and II are implicit

1A 2A

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CAUSE AND EFFECT REASONING

1. Statements:

I. Standard of living among the middle class society is constantly going up since part of few years.

II. Indian Economy is observing remarkable growth.

a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.

d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

2. Statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.

II. The small banks in the private and co-operative sector in India are not in a position to withstand

the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

3. Statements:

I. Majority of the students in the college expressed their opinion against the college authority's

decision to break away from the university and become autonomous.

II. The university authorities have expressed their inability to provide grants to its constituent

colleges.

a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect

b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect

c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes

d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

e) Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

1A 2B 3B

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

DERIVING CONCLUSION FROM PASSAGES

Primary education in Bihar is in a poor shape. Pupils in over 50 percent of the schools read in the

open throughout the year. Over six million children born to lower income group parents remain

Unlettered. Not even one percent of the 63,000 primary schools have facilities of furniture, toilet,

drinking water and games. 3113 new teachers have been appointed in the current financial year

out of which 2747 are women. Now each of the 13,270 primary schools have at least two teachers.

1. Classrooms of most of the primary schools in Bihar are inadequate.

a) if you think the inference is 'definitely true'.

b) if you think the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts

given.

c) if the data given is inadequate i.e., from the fact given you cannot say whether the

inference is likely to be true or false.

d) if you think the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts

given.

2. In Bihar, 90 percent of the primary teachers are women.

a) if you think the inference is 'definitely true'.

b) if you think the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts

given.

c) if the data given is inadequate i.e., from the fact given you cannot say whether the

inference is likely to be true or false.

d) if you think the inference is probably false though not definitely false in the light of the facts

given .

3. 630 primary schools in Bihar have all the facilities like furniture, toilet, drinking water, games.

a) if you think the inference is 'definitely true'.

b) if you think the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts

given.

c) if the data given is inadequate i.e., from the fact given you cannot say whether the

inference is likely to be true or false.

d) if you think the inference is definitely false i.e., it contradicts the given facts.

1B 2C 3D

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

NONVERBAL REASONING

1. Direction : In each question below five figures are given. Four are similar in a certain way and so

for a group. Which one of the figures does not belong to that group?

2. Direction : In each question below five figures are given. Four are similar in a certain way and so

for a group. Which one of the figures does not belong to that group?

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

3. Direction : In question below five figures are given. Four are similar in a certain way and so for a

group. Which one of the figures does not belong to that group?

4. Which number is on the face opposite to in the dice whose four views are given below?

a) 6

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) None of these

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5.Three views of the same cube are shown below

The figure on the face opposite to the triangle is :

a) question mark

b) circle

c) pentagon

d) rectangle

e) None of these

1C 2E 3A 4A 5A

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ECONOMICS

CHAPTER 1

1. Demand for a commodity refers to

a) desire backed by ability to pay for the commodity

b) need for the commodity and willingness to pay for it

c) the quantity demanded of that commodity at a certain price

d) the quantity of the commodity demanded at a certain price during any particular period of time.

2. Contraction of demand is the result of

a) decrease in number of consumers

b) increase in the price of the goods concerned

c) increase in the prices of other goods

d) decrease in the income of purchasers

3. The law of demand assuming other things to remain constant, establishes the relationship

between

a) income of the consumer and the quantity of a good demanded by him

b) price of a good and the quantity demanded

c) price of a good and the demand for its substitute

d) quantity demanded of a good and the relative prices of its complementary goods

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

4. The supply of a good refers to

a) actual production of the good

b) total existing stock of good

c) stock available for sale

d) amount of the good offered for sale at a particular price per unit of time

5. All but one of the following are assumed to remain the same while drawing an individuals

demand curve for a commodity. Which one is it

a) the preference of the individual

b) his monetary income

c) price of the commodity

d) price of related commodity

6. All the following are determinants of demand except

a) taste and preferences

b) quantity supplied

c) income of the consumer

d) price of related goods

7. Which of the following pairs of goods is the best example of substitutes

a) Tea and sugar

b) Tea and coffee

c) Pen and ink

d) Shirt and trousers

8. The second glass of lemonade gives lesser satisfaction to a thirsty boy. This is a clear example

a) Law of demand

b) Law of diminishing returns

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c) Law of diminishing utility

d) Law of supply

9. What will happen in the rice market if the buyers are expecting higher prices in the near future

a) The demand for rice will increase

b) The demand for rice will decrease

c) The demand for rice remains unaffected

d) None of the above

10. An increase in supply of goods is caused by

a) improvement in technology

b) fall in price of other goods

c) fall in price of factors of production

d) all the above

11. identify the factor which generally keeps the price elasticity of demand for a good low

a) variety of uses for that good

b) very low price of a commodity

c) close substitutes for that good

d) high proportion of consumer income spent on it

12. In case of an inferior good, the income elasticity of demand is

a) Positive b) Zeroc) Negative d) Infinite

13. Suppose the price of Pepsi increase, we will expect the demand curve of coco cola to

a) Shift towards left since these are substitutes

b) Shift towards right since these are substitutes

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c) remain at same level

d) None of the above

14. The price of hot dogs increases by 22 % and the quantity of hot dogs demanded falls by 25%.

This indicates the demand for hot dogs is

a) elastic b) in elastic c) unitary elastic d) perfectly elastic

15. When the numerical value of cross elasticity between two goods is high, it means

a) The goods are perfect complements and therefore have to be used together.

b) The goods are perfect substitutes and can be used with ease in place of one another.

c) There is a high degree of substitutability between the two goods.

d) The goods are neutral and therefore cannot be considered as substitutes.

16. Demand for a good will tend to be more elastic if it exhibits which of the following

characteristics?

(a) It represents a small part of the consumer’s income.

(b) The good has many substitutes available.

(d) There is little time for the consumer to adjust to the price change

17. In the case of a Giffen good, the demand curve will be

(a) horizontal. (b) downward-sloping to the right.

18. A vertical supply curve parallel to Y axis implies that the elasticity of supply is:

(a) Zero. (b) Infinity.

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19. Elasticity of supply refers to the degree of responsiveness of supply of a good to changes in

its:

(a) demand. (b) price.

20. Contraction of supply is the result of:

(a) decrease in the number of producers.

(b) decrease in the price of the good concerned.

(d) decrease in the outlay of sellers.

21. As income increases, the consumer will go in for superior goods and consequently the demand

for inferior goods will fall. This means:

(a) income elasticity of demand less than one.

(b) negative income elasticity of demand.

(d) unitary income elasticity of demand.

22. When income increases the money spent on necessaries of life may not increase in the same

proportion, This means:

(a) income elasticity of demand is zero.

(b) income elasticity of demand is one.

(d) income elasticity of demand is less than one.

23. The luxury goods like jewellery and fancy articles will have

(a) low income elasticity of demand (b) high income elasticity of demand

24. The price of tomatoes increases and people buy tomato puree. You infer that tomato puree

and tomatoes are

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(a) normal goods. (b) complements.

25. The quantity supplied of a good or service is the amount that

(a) is actually bought during a given time period at a given price.

(b) producers wish they could sell at a higher price.

(d) people are willing to buy during a given time period at a given price

26. Supply is the

(a) limited resources that are available with the seller.

(b) cost of producing a good.

(d) Willingness to produce a good if the technology to produce it becomes available.

27. If price of computers increases by 10% and supply increases by 25%. The elasticity of supply

is :

(a) 2.5 (b) 0.4

28. An increase in the number of sellers of bikes will increase the

(a) the price of a bike. (b) demand for bikes.

29. When supply curve moves to the left, it means

(a) Smaller supply at a given price. (b) larger supply at a given price.

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30. When supply curve moves to right, it means

(a) supply increases. (b) supply decreases.

31. Elasticity of supply is zero means

(a) perfectly inelastic supply. (b) perfectly elastic supply.

32. Which of the following statements about price elasticity of demand is correct?

(a) Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how much the quantity demanded of a good responds

to a change in the price of that good.

(b) Price elasticity of demand is computed as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided

by the percentage change in price.

(d) All the above.

33. Supply is a ___________ concept.

(a) stock (b) flow and stock

34. The cross elasticity between Rye bread and Whole Wheat bread is expected to be:

(a) positive (b) negative

35. A service or commodity has a ________, if a given quantity of it can be supplied whatever

might be the price

(a) Relatively less elastic supply (b) Unitary elastic supply

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36. The cross elasticity between personal computers and soft wares is:

(a) positive. (b) negative.

37. When demand for a commodity increases with a fall in its price it is known as:

(a) contraction of demand. (b) expansion of demand.

38. What is the shape of the demand curve faced by a firm under perfect competition?

(a) Horizontal (b) Vertical

39. Which of the following is not a condition of perfect competition?

(a) A large number of firms.

(b) Perfect mobility of factors.

(d) Freedom of entry and exit into and out of the market.

40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of monopolistic competition?

(a) Ease of entry into the industry. (b) Product differentiation.

41. Oligopolistic industries are characterized by :

(a) a few dominant firms and substantial barriers to entry.

(b) a few large firms and no entry barriers.

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(d) one dominant firm and low entry barriers

42. Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic of oligopolies?

a) A standardized product

b) The goal of profit maximization

c) The interdependence among firms

d) Downward-sloping demand curves faced by firms.

43. In which form of the market structure is the degree of control over the price of its product by a

firm very large?

(a) Monopoly (b) Imperfect Competition

44. Discriminating monopoly implies that the monopolist charges different prices for his commodity:

(a) from different groups of consumers (b) for different uses

45. Price discrimination will be profitable only if the elasticity of demand in different sub-markets is:

(a) uniform (b) different

46. The structure of the toothpaste industry in India is best described as

(a) perfectly competitive. (b) monopolistic.

47. The structure of the cold drink industry in India is best described as

(a) perfectly competitive. (b) monopolistic.

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48. Agricultural goods markets depict characteristics close to

(a) perfect competition. (b) oligopoly.

49. Which of the following markets would most closely satisfy the requirements for a perfectly

competitive market?

(a) Electricity (b) Cable television

50. A Monopolist is a

(a) price-maker (b) price-taker

Answer Key

1 d 2 b 3 b 4 d 5 c

6 b 7 b 8 c 9 a 10 d

11 b 12 c 13 b 14 a 15 c

16 b 17 d 18 a 19 b 20 b

21 b 22 d 23 b 24 c 25 c

26 c 27 a 28 c 29 a 30 a

31 a 32 d 33 c 34 a 35 c

36 b 37 b 38 a 39 c 40 d

41 a 42 c 43 a 44 d 45 b

46 c 47 d 48 a 49 d 50 a

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CHAPTER 2 & CHAPTER 3

1) _____________ means the total value of goods and services produced annually in a

country.

a) Factor Income

b) National Income

c) Personal Income

d) Industry Income

2) The method that measures the contribution of each producing enterprise in the domestic

territory of the country.

a) Income Method

b) Expenditure Method

c) Product Method

d) None of these

3) The values which had previously been added to the stocks of raw material and goods have to

be ignored. The said statement is the precaution of which method.

a) Product Method

b) Income Method

c) Expenditure Method

d) None of these

4) ____________ is the second largest component of national income.

a) Investment Expenditure

b) Government Expenditure

c) Net Exports

d) Consumption Expenditure

5) The income private businesses pay to households who have lent the business money is:

a) Wages

b) Profits

c) Interest

d) Rent

6) ____________gains such as prizes won, lotteries etc. is not be included in the estimation of

national income.

a) Illegal Money

b) Windfall

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c) Transfer

d) Sale of Asset

7) GDP by expenditure method at market prices = C+ I + G + (X – M), where (X-M) is net export

which can be positive or negative. What “I” represent in this equation

a) Interest

b) Income

c) Investment

d) Imports

8) The price index which is calculated by dividing the nominal GDP in a given year by the real

GDP for the same year and multiplying it by 100.

a) GDP Inflator

b) GDP deflator

c) GDP accelerator

d) GDP decelerator

9) GDP at Factor Cost = GDP at Market Price – ? + Subsidies.

a) Direct Taxes

b) Customs Duty

c) Indirect Taxes

d) Excise Duty

10) In GDP at market price ___________are included and _________ by the government are

excluded.

a) Indirect Taxes & Subsidies

b) Subsidies & Indirect Taxes

c) Customs Duty & Indirect Taxes

d) Customs Duty & Subsidies

11) _________is the measure of money, in which all kinds of goods and services produced in a

country during one year are measured in terms of money at current prices and then added

together.

a) GDP

b) NNP

c) GNP

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d) NNI

12) Taxes levied on individuals, corporations and other businesses are included in the

a) GDP

b) NNP

c) GNP

d) NNI

13) GNP at Factor Cost =_______________ – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies.

a) GNP at Cost Price

b) GNP at Market Price

c) GNP at Inflated Price

d) GDP at Market Price

14) Personal Income = Private Income – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Profit Taxes

a) True

b) False

15) ___________ is the form in which estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund,

included in the annual financial statement and required to be voted upon in the Lok Sabha, are

submitted in pursuance of Article 113 of the Constitution.

a) Finance Bill

b) Appropriation Bill

c) Demand for Grants

d) Annual Financial Statement

16) Which bill has to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days of its introduction.

a) Appropriation Bill

b) Finance Bill

c) Expenditure Bill

d) None of the above

17) How much amount in Contingency Fund is at the disposal of President?

a) 450 Crores

b) 500 Crores

c) 550 Crores

d) 100 Crores

18) The government sells shares in the Public Limited Company, it is called as

a) Diversification

b) Capital Receipt

c) Revenue Receipt

d) Disinvestment

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19) This fund is to account for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting

as a banker.

a) Consolidated Fund

b) Public Account

c) Demand for Grants

d) Subsidies

20) DEA full form

a) Demand for Economic Activity

b) Department of Economic Affairs

c) Department of Economic Administration

d) Demand for Economic Alliance

21) A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in Article ______ of the Constitution

a) 109

b) 110

c) 111

d) 112

22) Capital receipts include

a) Loans from RBI

b) Loans from the Republic

c) Both

d) None of these

23) Government receipts which neither create asset nor reduce any liability are called as

a) Capital Receipts

b) Revenue Receipts

c) Grants

d) Aids

24) A fiscal deficit is calculated as a percentage of _________, or simply as total dollars spent in

excess of income.

a) National Income

b) GDP

c) GNP

d) NNP

25) The Government of India launched __________Bank, to provide every district with one

branch which will help increase rural penetration.

a) Co-operative Bank

b) India Post Payments Bank

c) Jana Bank

d) Seva Bank

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Answer Key

1 B 2 C 3 A 4 B 5 C

6 B 7 C 8 B 9 C 10 D

11 C 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 C

16 B 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 B

21 B 22 C 23 B 24 B 25 B

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CHAPTER 4 & CHAPTER 5

1) Para-Banking facilities

a) Savings Account

b) Debit Card

c) Term Loan

d) Current Account

2) The Small Finance Bank is licensed under which section of the Banking Regulation Act.

a) Section 20

b) Section 21

c) Section 22

d) Section 23

3) Banking Regulation Act, which year

a) 1947

b) 1950

c) 1949

d) 1935

4) State Bank of India was converted from which Bank

a) National Bank of India

b) Imperial Bank

c) Freedom Bank

d) Govt Bank of India

5) RRB’s means

a) Regional Reserve Bank

b) Rajasthan Rural Bank

c) Regional Rural Bank

d) Regional Routine Bank

6) Maximum deposit limit of a Payment Bank is

a) 1 Lakh

b) 50 Thousand

c) 2 Lakhs

d) 3 Lakhs

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7) The Mutual Fund Industry in India started in which year?

a) 1950

b) 1960

c) 1961

d) 1963

8) In Mutual Fund. SIP means

(a) System Investment Plan

(b) Systematic Investment Plan

(d) Swap Investment Plan

9) Which National Health Protection Scheme Launcher by the Government, Sept 2018

a) Jeevani Bharat

b) Ayush Bharat

c) Ayushman Bharat

d) Sukh Bharat

10) Which Committee recommended the opening up of Insurance Sector

a) Tandon Committee

b) Malhotra Committee

c) Narasimhan Committee

d) Rangarajan Committee

11) Cyber Insurance Policy Launched by HDFC Ergo, in the 2018 was

a) EV Secure

b) E@ Secure

c) Cyber@ Secure

d) Secure Cyber

12) Identify the new private sector bank in India from the below mentioned list

a) Ratnakar Bank

b) Development Credit Bank

c) Jammu & Kashmir Bank

d) Nainital Bank

13) Global Trust Bank, was merged with which bank

a) Axis Bank

b) HDFC Bank

c) Punjab National Bank

d) Oriental Bank of Commerce

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14) TFCI means

a) Tourism Finance Corporation of India Ltd

b) Tourism Finance Corporate of India Ltd

c) Tourism Finance Collegiate of India Ltd

d) Tourism Focus Corporation of India Ltd

15) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) set up in which year

a) 1991

b) 1990

c) 1992

d) 1989

16) Which was the first Development Financial Institution of India set up to propel economic

growth through development of infrastructure and industry

a) SIDBI

b) IDBI

c) IFCI

d) MDI

17) MUDRA was launched in which year

a) 2014

b) 2015

c) 2016

d) 2017

18) How many types of Co-operative Banks in India.

a) 3

b) 5

c) 4

d) 6

19) Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not

available to depositors of which organisation

a) Scheduled Banks

b) Co-operative Banks

c) NBFC’s

d) SIDBI

20) A company which is a financial institution carrying on as its principal business the providing

of finance whether by making loans or advances or otherwise for any activity other than its own

but does not include an Asset Finance Company.

a) Investment Company

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b) Loan Company

c) Infrastructure Finance Company

d) Asset Reconstruction Company

21) MortgAge GuArAntee CompAnies are financial institutions for which at least______ of the

business turnover is mortgage guarantee business

a) 80%

b) 85%

c) 90%

d) 100%

22) A ___________ is a document under the company’s seal which provides for the payment of

principal sum and interest thereon at regular intervals, which is usually secured by a fixed or

floating charge on the company’s property or undertaking and which acknowledges a loan to the

company”

a) Overdraft

b) Debenture

c) Commercial Paper

d) Preference Shares

23) National Digital Communications Policy is launched in which year

a) 2016

b) 2017

c) 2018

d) 2019

24) An investment made by a company or individual who us an entity in one country, in the form

of controlling ownership in business interests in another country.

a) FII

b) FPI

c) FDI

d) None of these

25) NAtionAl Food Security Mission was launched in which year.

a) 2005

b) 2007

c) 2009

d) 2017

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Answer Key

1 B 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 B

6 A 7 D 8 B 9 C 10 B

11 B 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 B

16 C 17 B 18 C 19 C 20 B

21 C 22 B 23 C 24 C 25 B

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BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

CHAPTER-6

1. “Make in India” programme was launched in _______

a. september 2014

b. august 2014

c. june 2014

d. oct 2014

2. _______ initiatives is aimed at transforming india into a global manufacturing hub .

a. standup india

b. startup india

c. skill india

d. make in india

3._______initiatives is revealed by modi in his Independence day address in 2015.

a. skill india

b. standup India

c. make in India

d. startup India

4. standup india aims at promoting entrepreneurship among ______

a. women

b. scheduled castes

c. scheduled tribes

d. All of the above

5.standup India scheme facilities bank loans between ______

a. Rs.10 lakhs & Rs 50 lakhs

b. Rs.25 lakhs & Rs.75 lakhs

c. Rs. 10 lakhs & Rs. 100 lakhs

d. Rs. 50 lakhs & Rs.150 lakhs

6.MTC stands for _______

a. Model Training Centres

b. Ministry of Transport Corporation

c. Ministry of Training Certification

d. Model of Transport Centres

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7.______ in collaboration with ministry of skill development and etrepreneurship is PDOT

program.

a. Model Training Centre

b. National skill Development Corporation

c. Ministry of external Affairs

d. Technical Training Program

8.In 2011, Groupon’s share price plunged from $20 to _____

a. $ 25

b. $ 30

c. $ 8

d. $ 9

9. Registration of _______ company cannot be done in startup?

a. partnership

b. public Ltd.

c. Pvt Ltd

d. LLP

10.______ is a not for profit public limited company incorporated on july 31, 2008?

a. NSDC

b. PDOT

c. TITP

d. MEA

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A D B D C A C D B A

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

CHAPTER -7

1.The business environment is always changing and is ______

a. certain

b. uncertain

c. complicated

d. All of the above

2._______ environment affects the economic environment of business.

a. social

b. legal

c. political

d. Technological

3.India has recorded a jump of _______ position among 190 countries in DBR ,2019.

a. 23

b. 77

c. 30

d. 89

4.DTF stands for ________

a. Department of Trade Frontier

b. Distant Trade Finance

c. Doing of Trade Finance

d. Distance of Frontier

5.who defined “Business environment is the aggregate of all conditions ,events and influence that

surrounds and affect it?

a. Keith Davis

b. Andrews

c. FW Taylor

d. Henry Taylor

6.online and common registration for_______ is provided on shramsuvidha portal.

a. ESIC

b. EPF

c. EPFO & ESIC

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d. EPFO

7.______ States/UTS have designed and implemented online single window system.

a. 29

b. 21

c. 32

d. 15

8.Business reform action plan was Established in the year ______

a. 2020

b. 2017

c. 2018

d. 2019

9.According to ease of doing Business index by department for promotion of industry and internal

trade for states ,what is rank of India with reference to starting a business?

a. 140

b. 137

c. 157

d. 167

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

B C A D A C B D B

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CHAPTER -8

1.NITI Aayog’s entire gamut of activities can be divided into ______ heads.

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

2. SEBI was founded on ______

a. June 12,1952

b. June 25,1982

c. April 12, 1992

d. April 25, 1972

3. NITI Aayog aims to develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at _______ level.

a. village

b. urban

c. semi urban

d. All of the above

4. The list of different verticals of NITI Aayog includes ______

a. Monitoring & Evaluation

b. Design policy & program

c. Faster cooperative Federalism

d. Governance & Research

5. The societies Registration Act was enacted in the year _____

a. 1980

b. 1960

c. 1975

d. 1932

6. SEBI has its headquarters at ________

a. New Delhi

b. Mumbai

c. Calcutta

d. Lucknow

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7. ________ protects the interests of Traders and Investors.

a. IFS

b. IMF

c. SEBI

d. RBI

8. when was RBI’s central office moved to Mumbai______

a. 1935

b. 1938

c. 1932

d. 1937

9. RBI has _______ training establishments .

a. 8

b. 6

c. 7

d. 12

10. National company Law Applicable Tribunal came into effect from _______

a. June 5, 2015

b. June 20, 2018

c. June 1, 2016

d. June 25, 2017

11. SATH refers to ________

a. Sustainable Action for Transforming Human capital

b. Scientific Association for Transforming Human capital

c. Sustainable Action for Transforming Human Concerns

d. Sustainable Action for Transmitting Human Concerns

12. SATH project is being implemented in _______ phases

a. 4

b. 2

c. 3

d. 5

13. The RBI was established in accordance with the provisions of the RBI Act _______

a. 1935

b. 1934

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c. 1936

d. 1937

14.SFIO refers to ______

a. social fraud identification officer

b. serious fraud identification officer

c. serious fraud investigation officer

d. security & fraud identification officer

15. The competition commission of India was established under competition commission of India

Act ______

a. 2001

b. 2002

c. 2003

d. 2000

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

B C A D A B C D B C A B B C B

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CURRENT AFFAIRS

CHAPTER-1

1. IMF consists of ________ member countries

a) 219

b) 189

c) 158

d) 208

2. Which one of the following organization was established to promoted exchange stability?

a) IMF

b) SAARC

c) ASEAN

d) BRICS

3. ASEAN Declaration was signed by_______ founding countries.

a) 7

b) 10

c) 6

d) 5

4. When was ASEAN established?

a) 19 August 1969

b) 25 September 1972

c) 8 August 1967

d) 8 September 1959

5. How many members are there in present ASEAN?

a) 10

b) 15

c) 7

d) 20

6. What is the aim and purpose of ASEAN?

a) To promote monetary corporation

b) To expand multilateral corporation

c) For global economic corporation

d) To accelerate economic growth and cultural development

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

7. The first BRICS ministerial meeting was held at the proposal of ______ President

a) American

b) Russian

c) UK

d) Indian

8. _______ countries manufacture R-27 missile.

a) China and Japan

b) USA and Australia

c) Russia and Ukraine

d) Russia and Germany

9. _______ organisation was formed to promote the welfare of people of South Asia.

a) G-20

b) ASEAN

c) BIMSTEC

d) SAARC

10. India is not a member in _______

a) ASEAN

b) SAARC

c) BIMSTEC

d) G-20

11. The present Chairperson of NITI Aayog is ______

a) Shri V. K. Saraswat

b) Dr. Rajiv Kumar

c) Shri Narendra Modi

d) Prof. Ramesh Chand

12. The central office of RBI at present situated in

a) Calcutta

b) Mumbai

c) Delhi

d) Lucknow

13. SEBI was established in the year______

a) 1982

b) 1985

c) 1992

d) 1997

14. The competition commission of India has been established by _______

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a) President

b) Central Government

c) Parliament

d) State Government

15. In Nov 2018, _______ joined the CCI as the Chairperson

a) Shri Ashok Kumar Gupta

b) Dr. Sangeetha Verma

c) Shri Bhagwant Singh

d) Dr. Krishnamurthy

16. ICSI has ______ chapters across India

a) 80

b) 100

c) 125

d) 70

17. Tapping into the opportunities created by digital technology and artificial intelligence is the

objective of

a) G-20 Summit

b) G-7 Summit

c) NUGen Mobility Summit

d) Shillong declaration

18. The first National Conference on Cyber Crime investigation and Cyber Forensics was held

a) 4-5 Sept 2019

b) 6-7 Nov 2019

c) 8-9 Aug 2019

d) 10-11 Oct 2019

19. _______ is also known as “Wizard of Omaha “

a) Elon Musk

b) Tim Cook

c) Warren Buffet

d) Bill Gates

20. “Make America great again “was followed by

a) Bill Clinton

b) Barack Obama

c) George Bush

d) Donald Trump

21. _______ book describes the life of freedom fighter Vinayat Damodar Savarkar

a) Savarkar

b) Vivekadeepini

c) Karmayoddha Granth

d) None of the above

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22. ______ languages are spoken across the world

a) 8976

b) 7111

c) 6987

d) 9125

23. Rupee symbol ( ) started in circulation on

a) 9th Aug 2011

b) 15th Aug 2012

c) 22 July 2012

d) 8 July 2011

24. ______ is highest civilian award of the country

a) Padma shri

b) Padma Bhushan

c) Bharat Ratna

d) Padma Vibhushan

25. The maximum no.of Bharat Ratna in a year is restricted to ______

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

26. Which of the following is not on Iconic site ?

a) Hasthinapur

b) Sivasagar

c) Kaziranga

d) Dholavira

27. Iconic tourist sites consist of ______ sites

a) 17

b) 15

c) 18

d) 12

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CHAPTER-2

28.RBI was established on-----

a)1 April 1954

b)1 April 1935

C)1 April 1938

d)1 April 1936

29.The---destroys the currency or coins that are not fit for circulation.

a) SBI b) RBI

c) Central government d) none of the above

30.---- has been permitted to increase deposit insurance coverage for a depositor.

a) NBFC b) EIGC

c) DICGC d) All of the above

31.DICGC Stands for-----

a) Deposit insurance and credit guidance corporation

b) Direct issuance and credit guideline corporation

c) Deposit interest and coverage guideline corporation

d) Direct insurance and coverage guarantee corporation

32.---is the finance minister of India

a) Venkaiah Naidu

b) Amit Shah

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c) Sushma Suraj

d) Nirmala Sitharaman

33.The quarterly review of a concurrent audit should be placed before.

a) ACB/LMC b) ACB

c) LMC d) Both ACB & LMC

34.The minimum average monthly balance for urban centres of SBI ranges from----

a) Rs.4000 to Rs.2000 b) Rs.5000 to Rs.3000

c) Rs.10000 to Rs.7000 d) Rs.3000 to Rs.1000

35.The maximum limit of cash deposit at non-home branch is ---- per day.

a) Rs.1 lakh b) Rs.5 lakh

c) Rs.2 lakh d) Rs.50000

36.In union budget, finance minister announced to sell a part of holding of ---- by way of initial

public offer.

a) RBI b) SEBI

c) LIC d) PPF

37.FPI Stand for ---

a) Foreign Public Investment

b) Foreign Portfolio Investment

c) Fiscal Public Investors

d) Fiscal Portfolio Investment

38.In order to promote ‘Make In India’, new companies inaugurated on or after 1st October

2019 has an option to income at the rate of ---

a)10% b)20%

c)18% d)15%

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39.The corporation has to spend ---- on CSR.

a)2% b)1%

c)18% d)4%

40.CSR Stands for ---

a) Corporation Sector Research

b) Collective Social Responsibility

c) Corporate Social Responsibility

d) Collective Sector Research

41.IPO Stands for ----

a) Initial Public Offer

b) Initial Portfolio Organization

c) International Public Offerings

d) Investment Portfolio Offer

42.RBI has --- regional offices

a) 25 b) 29

c) 27 d) 32

43.The functions of RBI is ----

a) Issue of currency

b) Monetary authority

c) Manager of foreign exchange

d) all of the above

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44.The central office of RBI was first established in ----

a) Mumbai b) Calcutta

c) New Delhi d) Agra

45.Since ---- RBI is fully owned by Government Of India

a) Nationalisation in 1949

b) Nationalisation in 194

c) Nationalisation in 1956

d) Nationalisation in 1950

46.RBI was established under provisions of RBI Act, ----

a) 1935 b) 1936

c) 1934 d) 1932

47.NIVRIK Stands for-----

a) Niryat Rashtriya Vaigyanik Yojana

b) Niryat Rashtriya Vikash Yojana

c) Niryat Rin Vaigyanik Yojana

d) Niryat Rin Vikash Yojana

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CHAPTER-3

48.Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi holds which of the following ministry

1) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

2) Department of Atomic Energy

3) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Which are correct?

a)1 only b) 2 only

c)1 and 2 only d) All of above

49.As of now Shri Nitin Jairam Gadkari holds which of the ministry?

a) Ministry of Railways

b) ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

c) Ministry of Public Affairs

d) None of the above

50.Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman holded which of the ministry in her previous term?

a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

b) Ministry of External Affairs

c) Ministry of Defence

d) None of the above

51.Kalraj Mishra has been appointed as governor for which of the following state?

a) Telangana b) Himachal Pradesh

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c) Kerala d) Rajasthan

52.Who is governor of Kerala as well as former civil aviation minister?

a) Arif Mohammed Khan b) Kalraj Mishra

c) Bhagat Singh Koshyari d) Tamilisai Soundarajan

53.Ministry of defence has approved committee to review defence procurement to strengthen

--- initiative.

a) Make In India b) Made In India

c) Manufactured In India d) None of the above

54.Which of the following recommendations are submitted as report by committee on CSR?

1)Making CSR expenditure tax deductible

2)Aligning Schedule 9 with the SDGs by adopting a SDG plus framework

3)Balancing local area preferences with national priorities

4)Introducing impact assessment studies for CSR obligation of 5 crore only

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2,3 b)1,3

c)1,2,4 d)All the above

55.Consider the following statement about ‘Transformation for Indian Agriculture’.

1)It is an eight-member committee

2)Chaired by Maharashtra chief minister Devendra Fadnavis

3)The committee will suggest modalities for adoption and time bound implementation of

agriculture sector reforms

Which of the following are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)All of the above

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56.Consider the following statement about constitutional committee for liabilities of J&K.

1)It is a 3-member advisory committee

2)Its members include retired IAS officer Arun Goyal and retired Indian Civil Accounts Service

officer Giriraj Prasad.

3)The Committee will have to oversee the distribution of assets and liabilities between the

Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir only.

Which of the following are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)All of the above

57.Mr. Jagat Prakash Nadda became the 11th National President of which national party?

a) Indian National Congress

b) Bharatiya Janata Party

c) Nationalist Congress Party

d) None of the above.

58.Under whose reign as president did BJP swept 2019 Lok Sabha election with massive

majority?

a) Narendra Modi

b) Jagat Prakash Nadda

c) Raj Nath Singh

d) Amit Shah

59.Micheal Dibabrata becomes Deputy Governor as which of the following?

a) RBI B) SBI

C) SEBI D) None of the above

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60.Who among the following as been appointed as Queens Counsel recently?

a) Harish Salve b) Sharad Arvind Bobde

c) Shantanu Majumdar d) None of the above

61.Consider the following statement about supreme court judges?

1) It increased the strength of judges from 31 to 35.

2) Chief Justice Krishna Murari from Punjab is one among the four new elected judges

3) Supreme court judges are appointed by President of India.

Which of the following are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)All of the above

62.Who has been appointed as principal secretary of Prime Minister recently?

a) P.K. Mishra b) Nripendra Misra

c) P.K. Sinha d) None of the above

63.Arvind Krishna has been appointed as CEO OF----

a) INTEL b) IBM

c) ACCENTURE d) WIPRO

64.Consider the following statement about National Policy on Official Statistics.

1) A roadmap towards modernised data collection

2) This policy to enables the private sector to build Data Centre parks throughout the country

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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65.Consider the following statement about National Logistics Policy.

1) It will create a single window E-logistics market.

2) It will clarify the roles of the Union Government, State Governments and key regulators

3) it focuses on employment and competitiveness of MSMEs.

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

66.Consider the following statement about village storage scheme.

1) To be run by the SHGs to provide farmers a good holding capacity and increase their

logistics cost

2) Women, SHGs to regain their position as Dhaanya Lakshmi

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

67.Recently formed UMMID scheme is launched by which ministry?

a) Ministry of health and family welfare.

b) Ministry of Women and Child Development.

c) Ministry of Science & Technology, Earth Sciences

d) None of the above

68.Consider following statement about Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana.

1) Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana on the 12th of

September

2) Scheme secures the lives of 5 Crore Small and Marginal Farmers

3) It provides a minimum pension of Rs 4000 per month on attaining the 60 years of age

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Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

69.Consider the following statement about Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan scheme.

1) The provisions apply to shop owners, rice mill owners, oil traders, etc.

2) Retail traders with GST turnover below Rs 1.5 crore and aged between 18-40 years, can

enrol for the scheme

3) It is a state sponsored scheme

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

70.Consider the following statement about National Digital Library of India.

1) NMEICT has launched the National Digital Library of India.

2) There are more than 3 crore digital resources available through the National Digital Library

3) The contents cover almost all major domains of education and all major levels of learners

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

71.Consider following statement about NEAT scheme.

1) It is under Ministry of Human Resource Development.

2) The objective is to use Artificial Intelligence to make learning more personalised and

customised

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

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c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

CHAPTER 4

72.World Youth Conference for kindness is launched by---

a) UNESCO B) UNICEF

C) UNEP D) IMF

73.Consider the following statement about World Youth Conference for kindness.

1) First World Youth Conference on Kindness was held in New Delhi, India

2) theme- 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam’: Gandhi for the Contemporary World: Celebrating the

150th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi’

3) It strive to discover ground-breaking pathways to achieve the United Nations’ Sustainable

Development Goals

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

74.Consider the following statement about PIO cards.

1) The Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) cards along with valid foreign passport will be considered

for exit or entry into India till 31 March 2020

2) PIO card holdres need not convert to Overseas Citizenship of India.

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

75.The ban of electronic cigarettes ordinance 2019

1) It is done my Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

2) Prime Minister Narendra Modi has approved the Promulgation of Prohibition of Electronic

Cigarettes

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3) Committing the offence might lead to an imprisonment of up to 3 year or fine up to Rs.1 lakh

for first time.

Which of the above statement are incorrect?

a)1 only b)2,3

c)3 only d)1,3

76.forever 21 bankruptcy is done in which country?

a) UK B) US

C) France D) Australia

77.Global standards of governance for Global Economic Order is followed by---

a) TATA B) DELOITTE

C) RELIANCE D) ADITYA BIRLA

78.Consider the following statement about Global Standard of Governance.

1) The core business philosophy is rapidly moving away from shareholder capitalism to

stakeholder capitalism.

2) All the stakeholders are demanding a higher value, order, accountability

3) Indian corporates need to hold themselves accountable to global standards of governance if

India wishes to re-shape the global economic order

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

79.Consider the following statement about Reliance Capital

1) It plans to shut down all its lending business

2) It owns three types of firms.

Which of the following incorrect?

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a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

80.Consider the following statement about Vivad se Vishwas scheme

1) A taxpayer would be required to pay only the amount of the disputed taxes and will get

complete waiver of interest and penalty, provided he pays by 31st March, 2020.

2) Those who avail the scheme after 31st March, 2020 not needed to pay any additional

amount.

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

81.Consider the following statement about Sustainable Development Goals.

1) It is launched in Bhutan’s parliament.

2) The tourists from India. Maldives, and Bangladesh have to pay 1200 Bhutanese Ngultrum as

sustainable Development fee per day from July 2020

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

82.Consider the following statement about African Cheetah.

1) Supreme Court allowed the introduction of African Cheetah to suitable habitat in India

2) The Supreme Court stated that the African cheetahs can be introduced to the Kuno National

Park in Maharashtra

3) National Tiger Conservation Authority has filed petition to relocate African Cheetah

Form Gambia to India.

Which of the above statement are incorrect?

a) 1 only b) 2,3

c) 1,3 d) All of the above.

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83.Indian Cheetah is deemed as-----

a) Critically endangered

b) Vulnerable

c) Endangered

d) Extent.

84.Consider the following statement about World Ozone Day.

1) It is observed annually on September 16 to commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol

on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer.

2) The theme of World Ozone Day 2018 was 32 Years and Healing

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

85.Consider the following statement about Swacchta Hi Seva 2019.

1) The Swachhta hi Sewa 2019 theme was ‘plastic waste awareness and management’

2) Prime Minister had set the goal of making India ODF by October 2, the 150th birth anniversary of

Mahatma Gandhi under the Swachh Bharat Mission.

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

86.Nation-wide ban on single use plastic was imposed on----

a) 2nd September ,2019

b) 2nd November, 2019

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c) 2nd October, 2019

d) 1st September, 2019

87.which of the following reasons are correct about ban on single use plastics.

1) Most of the plastic is biodegradable and over a period of time the plastic breaks up and releases

toxic chemicals into the water bodies

2) As per National Geographic only 9% percent of the plastic items are recyclable, the rest ends up

either buried in the land or water bodies

3) Prime Minister Narendra Modi, who has set the goal to make India free of single-use plastics by

2022

Which of above statements are correct?

a)1,2 b)2,3

c)1,3 d) All the above

88.Recently NGT set up a committee to examine the allegation of illegal sand mining in ---- river

a) Yamuna b) Kaveri

c) Ganga d) Krishna

89.Consider the following statement about NGT committee on illegal sand mining

1) The decision was taken by NGT Chairperson, Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel.

2) Delhi’s Pollution Control Committee will be the nodal agency for coordination and compliance of

the task

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

90.BASIC meeting on Climate Change was held in---

a) Brazil b) China

c) India d) South Africa

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91.Consider the following statement about BASIC meeting on Climate Change

1) India was represented by Union Environment Minister Prakash Javadekar.

2) BASIC countries expressed concern about climate change and its adverse effects and reaffirmed

their commitment to successful implementation of UNFCCC

Which of the following incorrect?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

92.COP 25 meeting is decided to be held in ---

a) Paris b) Chile

c) Morocco d) Poland

93.Consider the following statement about State Rooftop Solar Attractiveness Index (SARAL)

1) Launched by Ministry of State for Power and New & Renewable Energy (IC) and Skill

Development & Entrepreneurship

2) Telangana has been placed at the first rank in the Index that evaluates Indian states based on

their attractiveness for rooftop development

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

94.SARAL has been designed collaboratively by which of the following

1) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)

2) Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation (SSEF)

3) Ernst & Young (EY)

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Which of the above are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)1,2,3

95.The MANI app released recently to assist visually challenged persons by –

a) SBI B) RBI

C) INDIAN BANK D) None of the above

96.Consider the following statement about ADITYA L-1

1) It is ISRO and Russia joint mission

2) It will be placed in the halo orbit near the L1 point of the Sun-Earth system

3) It is expected to be launched by end of 2020

Which of the above are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)1,2,3

97.Consider the following statement.

1) ISRO and DRDO have signed a Memorandum of Agreement (MoU) to develop human-centric

systems for the Human Space Mission to demonstrate ISRO's human space flight capabilities

2) DRDO will be providing critical technologies to ISRO

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

98.Consider the following statement about chandrayaan-2 mission

1) It consists of Orbiter, Lander and Rover.

2) its goal was to discover north pole of the moon

3) It was launched by GSLV Mk-III

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Which of the above are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)1,2,3

99.Consider the following statement about gaganyaan mission

1) ISRO aims to launch its maiden Human Space Mission, Gaganyaan before the 75th anniversary

of India’s independence in 2022

2) The crewed space mission is planned to be launched aboard ISRO’s GSLV Mk III

Which of the following correct?

a)1 only b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

100.Consider the following statement.

1) The President of India Ram Nath Kovind launched the first Indigenous High-Temperature Fuel

Cell System developed by Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) under ‘New

Millennium Indian Technology Leadership Initiative (NMITLI)

2) The 5.0 kW fuel cell system generates power in a green manner

3) Fuel Cells developed are based on High- Temperature Proton Exchange Membrane (HTPEM)

Technology

Which of the above are correct?

a)1,2 b)1,3

c)2,3 d)1,2,3

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1. B 21 A 41 A 61 C 81 C

2. A 22 B 42 C 62 A 82 B

3. D 23 D 43 D 63 B 83 D

4. C 24 C 44 B 64 C 84 A

5. A 25 B 45 A 65 D 85 D

6. D 26 C 46 C 66 B 86 C

7. B 27 A 47 D 67 C 87 B

8. C 28 B 48 C 68 A 88 A

9. D 29 B 49 B 69 A 89 C

10. A 30 C 50 C 70 D 90 A

11. C 31 A 51 D 71 C 91 D

12. B 32 D 52 A 72 A 92 B

13. C 33 A 53 A 73 D 93 A

14. B 34 B 54 B 74 A 94 D

15. A 35 C 55 C 75 C 95 B

16. D 36 C 56 A 76 B 96 C

17. B 37 B 57 B 77 D 97 C

18. A 38 D 58 D 78 D 98 B

19. C 39 A 59 A 79 B 99 C

20. D 40 C 60 A 80 A 100 D

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1. In _____ several people can talk each other and see each other on television screen

simultaneously.

a. Multimedia.

b. Voicemail

c. Teleconferencing/Videoconferencing

d. Fax

2. ‘A single controlling authority is involved in vertical type communication and people are

communicating with a central figure or person. This central figure or a person radiates

instruction and orders to several of his employees who are working under him’ This type of

network is called

a. Wheel and spoke network

b. Chain network

c. Vertical network

d. Circuit network

3. Which of these reports contains information of a routine nature?

a. Periodic report

b. Trouble report

c. Progress report

d. Laboratory report

4. Which of these following is odd word out?

a. Hideous

b. Gorgeous

c. Elegant

d. Exquisite

5. A _____ is used to end a declarative sentence , a sentence which is not a questions or an

exclamation.

a. Hyphen

b. Space

c. Comma

d. Full stop

6. The phrase Vox Populi means :

a. Word for word

b. Conversely

c. An oral examination

d. The voice of the people is voice of god

7. The communication within the organisation is known as ______.

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a. Verbal communication

b. Internal communication

c. External communication

d. Informal communication

8. A wee- written _____ delivers the most important information , without the recipient even having

to open the email

a. Message

b. Salutation

c. Subject line

d. None of the above

9. Communication word is derived from the Latin word ___.

a. Communion

b. Communis

c. Communicare

d. Cosmos

10. Noise is ______ barrier to communication

a. Semantic

b. Physical

c. Socio-Psychological

d. None of the above

11. Use a single word for :

Delibrate killing of whole community or race

a. Atheist

b. Flora

c. Genocide

d. Hangar

12. Give an Antonym for the word: Audacity

a. Affectionate

b. Cowardice

c. Lavish

d. Bravado

13. Following sentence is divided into four parts. One of the parts may contain a mistake. Identify

that part and select the appropriate answer.

a. Six prototype

b. Of each device

c. Are now being tested

d. In hospitals in India

14. The idioms: Crocodile Tear means:

a. A narrow escape from mishap

b. Without emotion

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c. Pretented sorrow

d. Jealously

15. Which of the following protocol is use by the web?

a. HTTP

b. HPPT

c. HTPT

d. HTPH

16. The channel of communication which is mostly associated with gossip and rumours, is called:

a. Upward communication

b. Formal communication

c. Grapevine

d. Social gathering

17. Give synonym of the word: Idiosyncrasy

a. Affectionate

b. Preposterous

c. Eccentricity

d. Tormenting

18. Given below is an paragraph where the sentence are not in order. Choose the correct order in

which the sentence can be rearranged to form a coherent paragraph.

I) Columbus called these people Indian because he thought that he had reached india.

II) And, of course, most scholars agree that America was discovered many years ago by

ancients who crossed the Narrow Bering Strait to Alaska.

III) Few lands have been discovered as often as America.

IV) They then spread south and east across North America and further southward to central

America and beyond.

V) According to various claims, voyages to the new world had been made by the Phoenicians,

Irish, Viking, welsh and Chinese long before Christopher Columbus reached the Caribbean in

1942.

The correct order in which the above sentence can be organised to form a paragraph is:

a. (V),(IV),(III),(II),(I)

b. (III),(V),(II),(IV),(I)

c. (III),(V),(I),(II),(IV)

d. (V),(II),(IV),(III),(I)

19. The Proverb “Birds of a feather ,flock together” means

a. From one trouble to another big trouble

b. One never lose hope

c. Said of something impossible

d. People of like Character come together.

20. The original amount that is borrowed or the outstanding balance to be rapid less interest is

called ___

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a. Simple interest

b. Principle

c. Instalment

d. Divident

21. When words are used in communication , either spoken or written, this kind od communication

is called as:

a. Non-verbal communication

b. Downward communication

c. Verbal communication

d. Upward communication

22. Always start writing your email with a _______

a. Greeting

b. Purpose

c. Question

d. Closing remark

23. Outsourcing means:

a. The activity of providing goods and service involving financial and commercial and

industrial aspects.

b. Commercial process involved in promoting and selling and distributing a product or service

c. Contracting our selected functions or activities of an organizations to other organization

that can do that work more efficiently.

d. Business or government activities that is purposely designed to simulate inventions and

innovations.

24. In MIS system design, the source of information may be categorized as ______ and _______.

a. Constructive ,destructive

b. Personal , organizational

c. Internal, External

d. Useful unuseful

25. Choose the appropriate combination of an article(a,an or the) to fill the two blanks in each of the

sentence given below: It is not at all unusual for ____ editor to tamper with ___ writer’s

manuscript.

a. The, no article

b. An, no article

c. An, the

d. An ,a

26. Before sending any written communication, one should take a moment to review for spelling ,

grammar and punctuations mistakes. This practice is called:

a. Proof reading

b. Checking the tone

c. Over-communication

d. Courtesy

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Read the following passage:

27. A large part of the increased food production is lost because of:

a. Bad eating habits of the people

b. The destruction caused by the harmful insects

c. The lack of irrigation facilities

d. The inadequate rainfall in the country

28. The function of the Insecticides is:

a. To store the harvested crop

b. T harvest the growing crop

c. To protect the growing crop

d. To nourish growing crop

29. When the farmer sprays his field with chemicals that kills insects:

a. He fertilizers the soil

b. He spoils his growing crops

c. He kills goods as well as bad insects

d. He decreases his food productions.

30. The common earthworm:

a. Reduces the grain to dust

b. Is the greatest destroyer of the crops

c. Makes the soil more rich

d. Breaks up the leaves on the crop

31. After harvesting what the farmer needs is:

a. A good supply of seeds

India loses grain crops worth crores of rupees every years because of pests. In fact, the increased

food production made possible by modern technology and agricultural research would become

more evident if farmer is able to effectively combat the various pests and insects and destroys the

crops. While some of the crops are destroyed after harvesting, a large quantity of crops is destroyed

in the fields. True that Indian farmers today is better able to combat these destroyers of grains, for

the made available to him better storing facilities for the harvested crops, and modern chemical aid

like insecticides with which he may spray the growing crops in his fields. But, one has to remember

that not all insects are harmful. The common earthworms, for instance, is a friend of man, because it

works like a dustman by breaking up the dead leaves and wood from plants and mixes them with a

soil, thus making the soil richer. Therefore, when a farmer sprays his filed with chemicals that kills

insects , he destroys his friends with his enemies.

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b. A safe place for storage

c. Ability to combat the weather

d. A lot of chemical fertilizer

32. The receiver’s response(or non-response) to a message is called:

a. Input

b. Message

c. Feedback

d. Channel

33. Answering the letters promptly, apologizing for any omissions or thanking generously for a

favour are the few examples of ______ principle in communications.

a. Completeness

b. Clarity

c. Correctness

d. Courtesy

34. Any asset that is pledged as security for a loan instrument is called_____

a. Liability

b. Capital

c. Collateral

d. Share

35. Pick the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make sure the

sentence is meaningfully complete.

The proud king turned a deaf ear to the _____ of wise counsellors.

a. Advice

b. Advices

c. Advises

d. Advise

36. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option

He was not listening ____________ I was saying

a. To what

b. That

c. Which

d. What

37. Choose the most grammatically correct option from below:

a. The Titanic did not reach its destination

b. The Titanic did not reach his destination

c. The Titanic did not reach their destination

d. The Titanic did not reach her destination

38. Choose the correct spellings in option given below

a. Adherance

b. Adheranse

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c. Adharence

d. Adherence

39. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Mala fide” means:

a. Genuine

b. Trustworthy

c. Generous

d. Bad intension

40. ______ is distracting and interfaces with the communication process.

a. Sender’s voice

b. Noise

c. Receiver’s voice

d. None of the above

41. Communication is a process_____ as it incorporates the change shape of the participants

and the environment.

a. Slow

b. Dynamic

c. New

d. Costly

42. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown:

I This clearly indicates that the brains of men and women are organised differently in the way they

process speech.

II Difference in the way men and women process language is of specially interest to brain

researchers.

III However, women are more likely than men to suffer aphasia when the front part of the brain is

damaged.

IV It has been known that aphasia- a kind of speech disorder- is more common in men than in

women when the left side of the brain is damaged in an accident or after a stroke.

The best sequences is :

a. II,IV,III,I

b. IV,III,II,I

c. II,I,III,IV

d. IV,I,III,II

43. An amount set aside out of profits or surpluses to meet contingencies is called:

a. Royalty

b. Repo

c. Reserve

d. Collateral

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44. Choose the correct spellings in options given below:

a. Remuneration

b. Renumeration

c. Renumaration

d. Remunaration

45. Choose the most grammatically correct option from below:

a. Please stop interfering for my romantic life

b. Please stop interfering with my romantic life

c. Please stop interfering into my romantic life

d. Please stop interfering in my romantic life

46. Known to self and known to others is called _____ on Johari Window.

a. Blind spot

b. Unknown

c. Arena Quadrant

d. Façade

47. An address bar is also known as:

a. URL bar

b. Search bar

c. HTTP bar

d. Web browser bar

48. A Quorum is:

a. Minimum number of members required to be present in order to transact business at a

meeting

b. A list of securities owned by a person

c. A person who own a business

d. One who acts on behalf of others

49. Find out the appropriate meaning of the given word from the choices given below it:

Empathy.

a. Opposition

b. Ire

c. Tranquility

d. Understanding

50. Price-list, Manuals, Purchase Orders are examples of:

a. Horizontal communication

b. External communication

c. Internal communication

d. Vertical communication

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51. The worker’s empowerment and their participant in management had led to an increase in

the flow of:

a. Downward communication

b. Upward communication

c. Diagonal communication

d. Horizontal communication

52. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following question:

“Pro rata” means:

a. A summary or curriculum vitae

b. Point by point

c. For the good of the public

d. According to rate or proportion

53. The purpose of MIIS is to:

a. To reduce management clashes

b. To allocate different types of resources to different functional areas

c. To increase labour output

d. To help in recruitment

54. Communication being particular and clear rather than fuzzy and general implies which

Principle of communication?

a. Principle of Conciseness

b. Principle of Courtesy

c. Principle of Clarity

d. Principle of Concreteness

55. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following question:

“To smell a rat” means

a. To suspect a trick

b. To trust blindly

c. To behave like a rat

d. To detect a foul smell

56. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown:

i. Converting money into several currencies in the course of one trip can also be quite

expensive, given that banks and bureaux de change charge commission on the

transaction.

ii. Trying to work out the value of the various notes and coins can be quite a strain ,

particularly if you are visiting more than one country.

iii. Travel can be very exciting , but it can also be rather complicated.

iv. One of these complications is, undoubtedly foreign currency.

The best sequence is:

a. iv,i,iii,ii

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b. ii,i,iii,iv

c. iii,iv,ii,i

d. iv,iii,ii,i

57. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

My father was annoyed _________ me

a. With

b. Upon

c. towards

d. against

58. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

Some people believe that in emotional maturity men are inferior ________ women.

a. Against

b. From

c. Than

d. To

59. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the followings

“To cool one’s heels” means

a. To kick someone with a heels

b. To walk on the heels

c. To close the chapter

d. To wait and rest for some time.

60. A/An ________ is an evaluation/assessment or review of a particular event , issue, period

or set of circumstances related to a business

a. Business letter

b. MIS

c. E-mail

d. Business report

61. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown

i. She was right about three curiosity, freckles and doubt but wrong about love

ii. “Pour of the rings I’d be better without: Love, curiosity, freckles and doubt ”

iii. Love is indispensible in life

iv. So wrote Dhorothy Parker , the American writer.

The best sequence is

a. iv,i,iii,ii

b. ii,iv,i,iii

c. iii,i,iv,ii

d. iv,iii,ii,i

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Read the given passage carefully and give the appropriate answer:

62. Choose most appropriate option:

Nature writing emphasizes on:

i. Historical facts about the nature

ii. Philosophical Interpretations of the nature

iii. Scientific information and facts

a. Only (i) and (ii)

b. Only (i) and (iii)

c. (i) , (ii), and (iii)

d. None of the above

63. Based on the passage what is period to which the modern nature writing can be traced to:

a. 1850 till 1999

b. 1850 to 1899

c. 1750 till 1899

d. 1750 till 1900

64. Which statement summarizes the above passage?

a. The passage talks about the life and lessons of Glibert White, a profound naturalist and

ornithologist

b. The passage talks about how the nature writing is missing in the modern era and needs to

be revived.

c. The passages talks about from where the writers draw inspiration for nature writings, and

how its importance is diminishing in the modern era.

d. The passage talks about what nature writing is , the different types of nature writing, its

style and about the roots and pioneer of modern nature writing.

Nature writing is nonfiction or fiction prose or poetry about the natural environment. Nature

writing encompasses a wide variety of works, ranging from those that place primary emphasis on

natural history facts(Such as field guides) to those in which philosophical interpretation

predominate. It includes natural history essays, poetry, essays of solitude or escape , as well as

travel and adventure writing.

Nature writing often draws heavily on scientific information and facts about the natural world: at

the same time: it is frequently written in the first person and incorporates personal observations of

and philosophical reflections upon nature.

Modern nature writing traces its roots to the works of natural history that were popular in second

half of 18th century and throughout the 19th. An important early figure was the “Parson-naturalist”

Gilbert White (1720-1793) a pioneering English naturalist and ornithologist. He is best known for

his Natural History and Antiquities of Selborne(1789).

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65. Which word aptly describes the “Reflections” as used in the passage.

a. Opinion

b. Reproduction

c. Images

d. None of the above

66. According to the passage , what kind of works are written as part of nature writing?

i. Natural history essays and essays of solitude or escape

ii. Poetry

iii. Travel and adventure writing

Choose the correct options:

a. Only (i)

b. Only (i) and (ii)

c. Only (ii) and (iii)

d. All of the above

67. Under _______ data can be stored on cloud.

a. Big data storage

b. File storage

c. Cloud storage

d. Electronic storage

68. Find out the appropriate meaning of the word from the given choices below it:

Perjure

a. To confess

b. To hide

c. To demy

d. To lie

69. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

Drinking country liquor at marriage is a custom ____ certain tribes

a. Between

b. With

c. In

d. Among

70. When addressed to all employees an Office memorandum is as good a/an _______

a. Office order

b. Office circular

c. Report

d. Business letter

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71. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option.

There is a lot of work ____ hand. Let’s cancel ____ picnic.

a. In, a

b. On, a

c. Upon, the

d. In, the

72. Read the following jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best

sequence is shown.

i) People who start up their own business typically come from two extreme backgrounds :

One is the business family background and the other is steady professional family

background.

ii) Typically, people from different backgrounds face different kind of basic problems.

iii) The people from both background find it very difficult to establish and manage an

enterprise.

iv) Starting up and managing a small business is no joke.

a. iii, iv, i, ii

b. iv, ii, iii, i

c. ii, i, iii, iv

d. iv, i, iii, ii

73. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option:

It’s unfortunate that he died _______ cancer.

a) By

b) With

c) Of

d) From

74.The activities in an organization are of the following three types:

a) Informational, Core, Ancillary

b) Confidential, Operational and Ancillary

c) Strategic, Tactical and Operational

d) Strategic , Confidential and Routine

75.A Legal charge on property which holds is as a security for a loan is called:

a) Monopoly

b) Mortgage

c) Moratorium

d) Merger

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76. The Listener forming a biased opinion by looking at the speaker’s look, dress and mannerism

is a sign of:

a. Over enthusiasm

b. Disinterestedness

c. Pre-Judging the speaking

d. Diffidence

77.Choose the correct option for the underlined part of sentence to make the sentence

grammatically correct:

You should avoid to make such stupid mistakes.

a. Avoid make

b. Avoid making

c. Avoid to have

d. Avoid to made

78.Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Bona fide” means:

a. Trustworthy

b. Generous

c. Genuine

d. bad intension

79. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

Bala, along with his friends, _____ for basketball practice.

a. Go

b. Are going

c. Goes

d. Were going

80.Choose the correct option for the underlined part of sentence to make the sentence

grammatically correct.

Sheela told her teacher to explain the chapter once again.

a. Ordered her teacher

b. Said to her teacher

c. Asked her teacher

d. Invited her teacher

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81. A __ helps in retrieving the letter at a later stage.

a. CIN

b. Reference number

c. Date

d. Special marking

82. Full form of WWW is ___

a. World With Web

b. World Wide Web

c. World Wide Word

d. Web Wide World

83. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Vis-a-vis” means:

a. Opposite

b. Face-to-face

c. Agree

d. Direct

84. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown:

i) Progress in diagnosis, in prevention medicine and in treatment , both medicinal and

surgical , has been rapid and breath taking.

ii) Much in medicine which is not taken for granted was undreamt of even as recently as

20 years ago.

iii) Presently small pox has been eradicated , poliomyelitis practically banished , tuberculosis

has become curable and coronary artery disease surgically relievable.

iv) The dramatic surge in the field of molecular biology and research by immunologists and

geneticists has succeeded in controlling parasitic diseases like malaria and river blindness

that affect millions of people round the world.

a. ii, iii, i, iv

b. ii, iv, iii, i

c. ii, i, iii, iv

d. ii, iv, i, iii

85. ______ folder stores those messages that have been created but have not sent by the user so

far.

a. Trash

b. Inbox

c. Spam

d. Draft

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86. ________ Listener literally assess the verbal content on the basis of words not paralinguistic

or non-verbal cues.

a. Imaginative

b. Passive

c. Evaluation

d. Active

87. In 1965, ____ was the first to demonstrate the use of first email system known as mailbox

a. MIT

b. Caltech

c. Cambridge university

d. Stanford university

88. “Dear Sir/Madam” in a letter is:

a. Salutation

b. Subject heading

c. Main body

d. Attention line

89. A Litigant is:

a. A party to a case

b. Principal Amount

c. A formal legal document

d. Authority given to take some action

90. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

I can’t bear ______ late.

a. On

b. To

c. Being

d. Be

91. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

If you promise _____ angry with me , I’ll tell you what I broke.

a. Get not

b. Not getting

c. Not get

d. Not to get

92. Find out the Antonym of the given word from the choices given below it:

Relinquish

a. Abdicate

b. Possess

c. Renounce

d. Deny

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93. Choose the misspelled word from below:

a. Rhythm

b. Definite

c. Ceiling

d. Millennium

94. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“To give the game away ” means:

a. To lose the game

b. To give a walk-over in a game

c. To reveal the secret

d. To play the game badly

95. In a ____ format of letter layout, the date , all references , subject, salutation, paragraph of

the body, conclusion and signature , all commerce at the left margin.

a. Blocked

b. Semi-blocked

c. Partially-blocked

d. None of the above

96. Choose the misspelled word from below:

a. stupendous

b. Successor

c. charismatic

d. Corroborate

97. How long is the Himalayan mountain range?

a. 2400ml

b. 15000ml

c. 1500ml

Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions.

The Himalayas, or Himalaya , form a mountain range in Asia , separating the plains of the Indian subcontinent from

the Tibetan Plateau.

The Himalayan range has many of the Earth’s highest peak’s , including the highest , Mount Everest. The Himalayas

include over fifty mountains exceeding 7,200 m (23,600 ft) in elevation , including ten of the fourteen 8,000 –metre peaks.

By contrast, the highest peak outside Asia (Aconcagua, in the Andes) is 6,961 m (22,838 ft) tall.

Lifted by the subduction of the Indian tectonic plate under the Eurasian Plate,the Himalayan mountain range runs

west-northwest to east-southeast in an arc 2,400 km (1,500mi) long. Its western anchor, Nanga Parbhat , lies just south of

the northernmost bend of Indus river. Its eastern anchor , Namcha Barwa , is just west of the great bend of the Yarlung

Tsangpo River (upper stream of the Brahmaputra River). The Himalayan range is bordered on the northwest by the

Karakoram and the Hindu Kush ranges. To be north , the chain is separated from the Tibetan Plateau by a 50-60km (31-

37mi) wide tectonic valley called the Indus-Tsangpo Suture. Towards the south the arc of the Himalaya is ringed by the very

lowIndo-Gangetic Plain. The range varies in width from 350 km (220ml) in the west (Pakistan) to 150 km((93ml) in the east

(Arunachal Pradesh) . The Himalayas are distinct from the other great ranges of Central asia , although sometimes the term

‘Himalayas’ (or ‘Greater Himalaya’)is loosely used to include the Karakoram and some of the other ranges.

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d. 2400ml

98. What is the northwest border of the Himalayas?

a. Karakoram & Hindu Kush

b. Indus-Tsangpo Suture

c. Hindu Kush & Nanga Parbhat

d. Karakoram & Nanga Parbat

99. How many peaks in the Himalayas are above 8000 metre above the sea level?

a. Fifty

b. Fourteen

c. Ten

d. Five

100. Which word is the passage means “The sideways and downwards movement of the edge of a

plate of the earth’s crust into the mantle beneath another plate”?.

a. Tectonic

b. Subduction

c. Anchor

d. valley

101. Which statement summarizes the information given the passage?

a. The passage talks about how the Himalayas act as a barrier to icy winds for India

b. The passage talks only about the geographic boundaries of the Himalayas

c. The passage talks about the Mount Everest in the Himalayas

d. The passage talks about the geographic boundaries and the might of the Himalayas

102. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions

“To take a leap in the dark” means:

a. To discourage someone

b. To give up

c. Take a risky action

d. Gain an advantage

103. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown:

i). Venture capital is recommended as the ideal source of financing for a successfully small

business

ii). Several companies including start-ups have been funded by dedicated venture funds

during this decade.

iii). Despite, this an average Indian entrepreneur understands and appreciation of Venture

capital concept has been woefully inadequate.

iv). In the Indian context, though venture capital has been a relatively late entrant, it has

already made a reasonable impact

a. i, iii, ii, iv

b. i, iv, ii, iii

c. i, ii, iii, iv

d. i, iv, iii, ii

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104. Find out the Synonym of the given word from the choices given below it:

Genial

a. friendly

b. blemished

c. Over bearing

d. Hollow

105. According to _____ , communication in its simplest form of conveying of information from one

person to another.

a. Scott

b. Hudson

c. Kotler

d. Drucker

106. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option:

I like reading journals __________ novels.

a. The best

b. The less than

c. Most then

d. More than

107. Choose the correct spellings in options given below:

a. accommedation

b. accomedation

c. accomadation

d. accommodation

108. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“To bury the hatches” means:

a. To cremate carcass of an animal

b. To plant grass in the field

c. To hid some features

d. To end a feud with an enemy

109. An agreement between parties in order to create legal obligations under a seal or for a

consideration and enforceable by law is called”

a. Consortium

b. Collateral

c. Consignment

d. Contract

110. ______ allows cumbersome knowledge to be maintained and easily accessed

throughout the company using hypermedia and web technologies

a. Web publishing

b. Web communication

c. Web circulars

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d Website

111. Which of the following protocol is used by web?

a. HTTP

b. HPPT

c. HTTM

d. HTPH

112. Choose the correct spellings in options given below:

a. Gellows

b. Ghallows

c. Gallows

d. Ghellows

113. Memo, Report, Office order, Circulars,Graphs/Charts , staffs, Newsletter, E-mail are

all examples of _________.

a. Visual Communication

b. Written communication

c. Oral communication

d. Audio-Visual communication

114. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

There isn’t ________ water in the overheat tank.

a. Any

b. Something

c. Lot of

d. Little

115. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate options:

A fire broke _____ in the neighbourhood

a. Out

b. Off

c . From

e. Away

116. A letterhead contains the following:

a. Company logo

b. Name and address of registered office, corporate office

c. Contact numbers

d. All of the above

117. _________ is a global network of networks.

a. Email

b. Intranet

c. Internet

d. Website

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118. The Vertical Network is usually between ______ and _______.

a. Superior , subordinate

b. teacher, student

c. firm, customer

d. subordinate , subordinate

119. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Ab initio” means :

a. In defence of a comment

b. From the beginning

c. In continuation with

d. In connection with the future

120. “A communication should be clear so the recipient can understand what the sender

really wants to communicate” denotes which Principle of Communication?

a. Principle of Consideration

b. Principle of Clarity

c. Principle of Correctness

d. Principle of Conciseness

121. A _____ is an evaluation or assessment or review of a particular event, issue,

period or a set of circumstances which is related to a business.

a. Letter

b. Business report

c. MIS

d. Memorandum

122. ________ is used to find, retrieve and display information available on the world

wide web

a. Web browser

b. Intranet

c. email

d. Internet

123. Communication where messages are communicated through body

languages(i.e.,)facial expressions and gestures is called________.

a. Horizontal communication

b. Downward communication

c. Verbal communication

d. Non-verbal communication

124. Ant deleted mail is put in _________ folder

a. Inbox

b. Trash

c. Spam

d. sent

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125. Fill up the blanks by choosing the most appropriate option:

They always give the available seats to__________ comes first.

a. Whichever

b. Whom

c. Whomever

d. Whoever

126. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases re underlined. If there is

any mistake with regards to grammar or usage , it is in the underlined part only. Identify the

incorrect part.

Evidently our product is the most unique in the market.

A B C D

a. C

b. A

c. B

d. D

127. Find out the appropriate meaning of the given word from the choices given below it:

Treason

a. Insult to the ruler

b. Desecrating the flag

c. Campaign of Republic

d. Betrayal of Country

128. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Amicus curiae” means:

a. One among the parties to the dispute

b. A friend of the court

c. One of the judges of the court

d. One among the expert witness in a case

129. Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions:

“Faux pas” means:

a. Social blunder

b. False

c. Expected to happening

d. Fake identity

130. The purpose of MIS is to :

a. To prepare future plans for short and long term basis

b. To allow management by exception

c. To report organization performance to shareholders

d. all of the above

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131. In each of the following sentences four words or phrases re underlined. If there is

any mistake with regards to grammar or usage , it is in the underlined part only. Identify the

incorrect part.

The most difficult job is to bend and then lifting the weight.

A B C D

a. A b. D c. B d. C

Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions:

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as component of he

Uruguay Round negotiation. However it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the

1970s , since negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’ of General Agreement on Tariffs

and Trade(GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted . What

factors lead to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s ? One factor was the pattern of multilateral

bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements , the

WTO was a product of series of trade –offs between principle actors and groups . For the United States,

which did not want a new organizations , the disputed settlement part of WTO package achieved its

longstanding goal of more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans , who

by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms add more as regime of

legal obligations , the WTO package was acceptable as a means to the discipline the resort to unilateral

measures by the United States, countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners

were attracted by the expansion of a rule based system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization

, both of which inherently support weak against the strong . The developing countries were attracted due

to the provisions banning unilateral measures. Finally and perhaps most important , many countries at

Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the

negotiation would produce , and they came to associate the WTO and a rule-based and a rule based

system with those gains This reasoning replicated in many countries- was contained in US Ambassadors

Kantor’s defence of the WTO , and it announced to be recognition that international trade and its

benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule based

environment. A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal

process The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalistic but he matter went

deeper that that . The GATT, and the WTO are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable

than an organization creating a future rule will in turn be influenced by legal process. Robert Hudee has

defined the “momentum of legal document” But what is it precisely? Legal development can be defined

as the promotion of technical and legal values for the ones who are responsible for administering any

legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrity under one

roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing

ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers;

and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather – rights and resolving defects

in dispute settlement procedure and institutional provisions. Concerns for these values is inherent in any

rule based system of co-operations, since without these any value rules would be meaningless in first

place therefore create their own incentive for their fulfilment. The moment of legal development has

occurred in other institution besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union(EU). Over the past

two decades the European Court of Justice has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded

incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition ’ handed down in

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132. In the statement “___ it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its

benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rulebased environment “, it refres to:

a. Ambassadors Kantor’s defence of the WTO

b. The provisions of a rule based system by the WTO

c. The exports gains many countries came to associate with a rule based system

d. The higher priority on exports gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round

133. What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?

a. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system

b. The US government did not like it

c. Important player did not find it in their best interest to do so.

d. The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reforms

134. In the method of interpretations of the European Court of Justice:

a. Enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized

b. Contracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules

c. Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

d. Current policies need to be consistent with stated goals

135. According to the passages , WTO promoted the technical legal value party through:

a. Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlements procedures.

b. Ambiguities about the power of contracting parties to make certain decisions

c. Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT

d. Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment.

136. The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

a. It has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures

b. They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased

trade.

c. In settled disputes more legally and more effectively

d. Its rule based system leads to export gains.

In the large part of the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade

negotiation that created a near revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of

the WTO was a deeply conservation act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not

be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement : these are the concerns of

conservatives and not revolutionaries : that is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues.

The WTO codifies the GATT Institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and

it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both new and old rules

from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were

necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built

incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.

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137. _________ is the fall in the value of fixed or movable asset due to wear and tear or

passage of time.

a. Depreciation

b. Discount

c. Depository

d. Deposit

138. Read the jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is

shown.

i. The Supertag scanner could revolutionise the way people shop, virtually eradicating

supermarket queues:

ii. The face of retailing will change even more rapidly when the fibre optic networks being built

by cable TV companies begin to be more widely used:

iii. The scanner would have a double benefit for supermarket removing the bottleneck which

causes frustration to most customers and reducing the number of checkout staff:

iv. An electronic scanner which can read the entire contents of a supermarket trolley at a

glance has just been developed:

a. iv, i, iii, ii

b. iii, i, iv, ii

c. ii, i, iii, iv

d. iv, iii, ii, i

139. Find out the appropriate meaning of the given word from the choices given below it:

Thesaurus

a. Arguments

b. Book of Synonym

c. Flush eating dinosaur

d. Road map

140. Noise is a______ barrier to communication.

a. Semantic

b. Physical

c. Socio-Psychological

d. None of the above

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1. Tort is a ______

a. Civil wrong

b. Criminal wrong

c. Civil as well as Criminal wrong

d. None of the above

2. If in a certain language, SACHIN is coded as RZBGHM, how is ROGER coded in that code?

a. QNFEQ

b. QNFDQ

c. QNFFQ

d. QNEDQ

3. Which type of company newly incorporated in companies Act, 2013?

a. One person company

b. Private company

c. Nidhi Company

d. Government company

4. At what time between 7’o clock and 8’o clock will the hands of a clock be together?

a. 33(5/12)mins past 7’o clock

b. 3(2/11)mins past 7’0 clock

c. 35(7/11)mins past 8’o clock

d. 32(1/11)mins before ‘0 clock

5. Judges of supreme court if India retire at age of ?

a. Sixty two

b. Seventy

c. Sixty

d. Sixty Five

6. Consider the following statements:

i) Preamble of the constitution of India states that we, the people of India , having solemnly

resolved to constitute India into a sovereign Democratic republic

ii) Preamble of the constitution of India states that we, the people of India , having solemnly

resolved to constitute India into a socialist Democratic republic

iii) Preamble of the constitution of India states that we, the people of India , having solemnly

resolved to constitute India into a sovereign socialist secular Democratic republic

iv) Preamble of the constitution of India states that we, the people of India , having solemnly

resolved to constitute India into Democratic republic

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

a. (ii) & (iv) only

b. (i) & (ii) only

c. (iv) only

d. (iii) only

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7. Which of the following ia/are “Mission if ICSI”?

a. Creating brand ICSI

b. To develop high calibre professionals facilitating good corporate governance

c. To develop globalisation of professions of company secretaries

d. All of the above

8. ASSERTION (A): The British established and developed Indian railways.

REASON (R) :The British were keenly interested in India’s economic development.

a. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

b. A is true but R is false

c. A is false but R is true

d. Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation of A

9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word “NURSING” which have as many letters

between them as in the Alphabet?

a. One

b. Six

c. Five

d. Three

10. Moon:Satellite::Earth:?

a. Solar system

b. Planet

c. Sun

d. Asteroid

11. Law of contract deals with?

a. Taxation

b. Laws of transfer

c. Laws of ownership

d. Enforcement of obligations arising from agreement

12. According to the constitution of India, all citizens shall have the right to practise any

profession, or to carry-on any occupation , trade or business is a,

a. Voluntary Duties

b. Fundamental Duties

c. Fundamental Rights

d. Statutory Duties

13. What is the “Vision” of the institute of company secretaries of India?

a. To be global leader in governance

b. To develop high calibre professionals facilitating good corporate governance

c. To promote good corporate governance

d. To be a global leader in promoting good corporate governance

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14. Property of the company belongs to

a. Company

b. Members

c. Shareholders

d. Promoters

15. 280 oranges are divided among some boys and girls whose total number is 50 so that

each boys get 5 oranges and each girls get 7 oranges . The number of girls is?

a. 15

b. 20

c. 30

d. 35

16. Law of torts deals with

a. Defamation

b. Trespass

c. Negligence

d. All of the above

17. Which of the following are the functions of the Institute of Company secretaries of India?

a. Examination of the student

b. Regulation of training of the students

c. Conduct of elections to the council of the Institute

d. All of the above

18. Minimum number of directors require for Private Limited Company under the companies

Act,2013

a. Seven

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

19. Liability of member in case of a company limited by share under the companies Act, 2013

is,

a. Limited to its shareholdings

b. Unlimited

c. Both (a) or (b)

d. None of the above

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20. Direction: The following question comprises of one or more statement. Answer the

questions on the basis of the given statements. Accept the factual assumptions required by the

questions, even if you believe that the statement is false.

Statements:

i. Cheese is bad for people with high-cholesterol

ii. Sumeet does not eat cheese

Assuming that (I) and (II) are true , which of the following statement follows?

a. Sumeet has high-cholesterol

b. Cheese is bad for sumeet

c. People with high-cholesterol do not eat cheese

d. None of the above

21. Amit khanna, born on 5th June,1973 has done his post-graduation in Marketing

Management with first class. He has secured 50% marks in the written test. He has been

working in an organisation as a marketing officer for the last four years. Which of the following

is the inference can be drawn for the eligibility criteria of his job:

a. Should have work experience of at least two years as an officer

b. Be a graduate with at least 50% marks

c. Have secured at least 40% marks in the written test

d. Not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as on 10th October, 1997

22. Arrange in a meaningful Sequence______.

i. Birth

ii. Death

iii. Funeral

iv. Marriage

v. Education

a. 1,3,4,5,2

b. 4,5,3,1,2

c. 2,3,4,5,1

d. 1,5,4,2,3

23. A and B are young ones of C. If C is father of A, but B is not the son of C. How are B and C

related.

a. Daughter and Father

b. Niece and Uncle

c. Newphew and uncle

d. None of these

24. Which of the following is/are the essential element of a valid contract under the Indian

Contract Act, 1872?

a. Free consent

b. Lawful consideration

c. Lawful objects

d. All of the above

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25. A Company secretary in Practise can appear as “Authorised Representative” beforea. Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA)

b. Competition Commission if India(CCI)

c. National Company Law Tribunal(NCLT)

d. All the above

26. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Aristotle’s attitude to law and equity was not simply theoretical fiction. There is evidence that in both

shaped legal practice and even more clearly , built, on an already developed and developing tradition

of Athenian legal thought . We have of course, almost no records of the actual outcomes of jury trails

and no record at all of the deliberation , as each juror cast a separate vote after hearing the various

arguments , apparently without much mutual consultation. We are however , have many examples

of persuasive speeches delivered to juries. And because the orator’s reputation rested on his ability

to persuade a jury of average citizens, chosen by lot ,we can rely on these speeches for evidence

of widespread popular beliefs about legal and ethical concepts. These speeches shows the orators

relying on the concept of law and even of justice that is very much like the one that Aristotle render

explicit and systematic. Thus , litigants frequently call for justice tailored to the circumstances of their

own case and they frequently use the expression ta dikaia(“Those things that are just”) in that sense.

And they often proceed as if the written law is understood to be a set of guideline with gaps, to be

filled in , or corrected , by equity argumentation . In this process , frequent appeal is made to the

juror’s sense of fainess, as if, once the particulars circumstances of the case are understood, they

can be expected to see that justice consists in an equitable determination.

The above passage suggests that

a. It is not wrong to make simple contrast between justice and equity

b. We have to choose between justice and equity and the rule of law as understandings of what

justice demands

c. Law and equity, according to Aristotle standards, are inter-woven in legal practice

d. None of the above

27. Minimum number of members require to incorporation of a Public Company under the

Companies Act,2013

a. Three

b. Seven

c. One

d. Two

28. According to the Constitution of India, who is/are empowered to issue Writ?

a. Prime Minister

b. President if India

c. Supreme Court of India

d. Governor of the State

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29. Event (A):Company X is opening an office n city Y for marketing the company’s products.

Event (B):Company X has chalked out an expansion plan , involving raising production capacity at

its existing plants.

a. If ‘A’ is the effect but ‘B’ is not its immediate and principle cause

b. If ‘B’ is the effect and ‘A’ is its Immediate and principle cause

c. If ‘A’ is the effect and ‘B’ is its Immediate and principle cause

d. If ‘B’ is the effect but ‘A’ is not its immediate and principle cause

30. Today is Monday. After 61 days, it will be

a. Saturday

b. Thursday

c. Wednesday

d. Tuesday

31. Constitution (Application to Jammu & Kashmir)Order,2019{Abrogation of Article 370(1) &

Article 35A of constitution of India} issued by the

a. Supreme Court if India

b. Prime minister

c. President of India

d. Governor of the state

32. Study of following digit-letter symbol sequence carefully and answer the questions given

below:

R * T J L 2 $ D = M # 8 C % B < K 1 & A W ? P E + Q @ 7 F 6

Which of the following is sixth to the left of eighteen element from the left?

a. %

b. 1

c. C

d. 8

33. Consider the following statement:

i. Parliament of India consists of two Houses-Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

ii. Parliament of India consists of President and Lok Sabha

iii. Parliament of India consists of President and two houses-Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

iv. Parliament of India consists of two Houses-Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

v. Parliament of India consists of the Speaker of the Lok sabha and Rajya sabha and Lok

sabha

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

a. (ii) & (iv) only

b. (iv) only

c. (i) & (ii) only

d. (iii) only

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34. Quasi-Contract meansa. From the conduct of an party a contract comes into

b. Arising as if from deeds

c. Legal portion

d. None of the above

35. In Law of torts , the meaning of Unliquidated damage is:

a. Penalty

b. Punishment

c. Approximately arrived at

d. Ascertainable

36. According to the Companies Act,2013 a private company (by its articles of association)

which is a subsidiary of a public company shall be:

a. A private company

b. Deemed to be public Company

c. A public company

d. Deemed to be private company

37. Governor of a State can be removed by:

a. Union Government

b. President of India

c. State Legislature

d. Supreme Court

38. How many members the President of India can nominate to the Lower House of

Parliament?

a. 10

b. 14

c. 12

d. 16

39. The Joint sitting of both houses of Parliament presides over by:

a. Governor

b. Vice-President

c. President

d. Prime Minister

40. A is son of C while C and Q are sisters to one another. Z is the mother of Q. If P is the son

of Z Which one of the following statement is correct?

a. Z is the brother if C

b. P is the cousin of A

c. Q is the grandfather of A

d. P is the maternal uncle of A

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41. Who among the following is competent to enter into a contract under the Indian Contract

Act,1872?

a. A person who is minor and of sound mind.

b. A person who is major, of sound mind

c. An insane person

d. None of the above

42. The relationship between the parties to a contact allowing them to sue each other but

preventing a third party from doing so is:

a. Privity of contract

b. Permanent contract

c. Pious contract

d. Privy Purse

43. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

1. Key 2.Door 3.Lock 4.Room 5.Switch On

a. 5,1,2,4,3

b. 1,2,3,5,4

c. 1,3,2,4,5

d. 4,2,1,5,3

44. Find the Odd number/Letter from the given alternatives:

a. Lawyers

b. Police

c. Judgement

d. Judges

45. What will come in place of Question mark?

1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 121

a. 91

b. 64

c. 81

d. 100

46. Fundamental rights mentioned in the Constitution of India borrowed from:

a. Russian Constitution

b. British Constitution

c. Canadian Constitution

d. U.S Constitution

47. In Law of Torts, a master is generally liable for acts of his servants. This is called

a. Asolute Liablity

b. Unlimited Liability

c. Strict Liability

d. Vicarious Liability

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48. Maximum no of members a private company can have excluding its present and past

employee members:

a. 50

b. 150

c. 100

d. 200

49. Number of Languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India is

a. 15

b. 21

c. 19

d. 22

50. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

a. 26, January ,1950

b. 15, November, 1948

c. 15, August, 1947

d. 26, January, 1949

51. Book:Cover::Painting: ?

a. Frame

b. Wall

c. Example

d. Colour

52. What will come in place question mark?

13, 26, ?, 42, 65

a. 30

b. 39

c. 42

d. 49

53. The case Salomon V. Salomon and Co. Ltd laid which the following characteristic of

company?

a. Perpetual Succession

b. Corporate Personality

c. Separate Property

d. Limited Liability

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54. Statements:

All the Harmoniums are Instruments.

All the Instruments are flutes.

Conclusion:

I. All the flutes are Instruments.

II. All the Harmoniums are Flutes

a. Only I Conclusion follows

b. Neither I nor II follows.

c. Either I or II follows.

d. Only II conclusion follows

55. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s Brother. How B is related to C?

a. Father

b. Brother

c. Uncle

d. Grandfather

56. Which one of the following is not included in the definitions of “Key Managerial Personnel”

under the Companies Act ,2013?

a. Managing Director

b. Independent director

c. Whole time director

d. Manager

57. Right to Education is a

a. Fundamental Rights

b. Legal Rights

c. Directive Principle

d. Fundamental Duties

58. Insect:Disease::War: ?

a. Destruction

b. Army

c. Defeat

d. Arsenal

59. Find the odd numbers/languages from the given alternatives.

a. Swimming

b. Driving

c. Sailing

d. Diving

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60. Arrange the words given below n a meaningful sequence.

1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sequence 4.Letters 5.Phrase

a. 4,1,5,2,3

b. 4,1,3,5,2

c. 4,2,5,1,3

d. 4,1,5,3,2

61. The Law of Torts Has largely developed though:

a. Bill of Parliament

b. Decisions of the Court

c. Ordinance

d. Act of Parliament

62. Find the odd numbers/languages from the given alternatives.

a. 6710

b. 2640

c. 5720

d. 4275

63. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence:

1. Leaf 2.Fruit 3.Stem 4.Root 5.Flower

a. 4,3,1,2,5

b. 4,3,1,5,2

c. 3,4,5,1,2

d. 4,1,3,5,2

64. Tupis Contractus means:

a. Under silence

b. An Infamous Contract

c. An Immoral Contract

d. At the proper time

65. Which of the following contains the regulations for management of the company?

a) Memorandum of association

b) Certificate of commencement of business

c) Articles of association

d) Incorporation certificate

66. Part IV of the constitution of India deals with:

a) Directive Principle of State Policy

b) Fundamental Rights

c) Fundamental Duties

d) Uniform civil code

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67. The company can furnish to the registrar verification of registration office in

a) Form no INC 21

b) Form no INC 22

c) Form no INC 20

d) Form no INC 23

68. Ijuria Sine Damnum means :

a) Only damage

b) Injury and damage

c) Injury without damage

d) Injury with damage

69 Directive Principles of state policy mentioned in the Constitution of India borrowed from:

a) Irish Constitution

b) U.S. constitution

c) Russian Constitution

d) Canadian Constitution

70. Water:Dam:: Trade: ?

a) Trade policy

b) Economy

c) Commerce

d) Goods

71. Ordinance is promulgated by the:

a) Parliament

b) President

c) Prime Minister

d) Chief Minister

72. Statement:

Some papers are pens.

All the pencils are pens.

Conclusion:

I. Some pens are pearls

II. Some pens are papers

a) Only II conclusion follows

b) Neither I Nor II follows

c) Only I conclusion follows

d) Either I or II follows

73.. Pointing to a Photo , Dinesh said that ‘His father is the only son of my mother’. The photo

belongs to :

a) Dinesh

b) Dinesh’s son

c) Dinesh’s Father

d) Dinesh’s Brother

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74. Ordinance is state promulgated by the:

a) Governor

b) Chief Minister

c) Prime Minister

d) President

75. Part II of the constitution of India deals with:

a) Fundamental Rights

b) The union

c) Citizenship

d) The states

76. The Writ QuoWarranto issue:

a) To direct a statutory body to do certain thing

b) To preserve the monuments of India

c) To prevent a person to hold public office which he is not legally entitled to hold

d) To protect a person to hold public office which he is legally entitled to hold.

77. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence

1. Family 2.Community 3.Member 4.Locality 5.Country

a) 3,1,2,5,4

b) 3,1,2,4,5

c) 3,1,4,5,2

d) 3,1,4,2,5

78. Who among the following is not a promoter under the companies Act,2013?

a) A person who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a

shareholder , director or otherwise

b) A person who is identified by the company in the annual return

c) A person who has been named such as in a prospectus or

d) A person who is giving advice to the Board of Director in his professional capacity

79. An auctioneers request for bid is:

a) A mere communication of information in the course of negotiation

b) An offer

c) An invitation to offer

d) A mere statement of intention

80. The Supreme Court of India comprises the chief Justice and ____ other Judges

a) 32

b) 34

c) 31

d) 33

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81. What will come in place of Question mark?

6, 11, 21, 36,56, ?

a) 42

b) 81

c) 91

d) 51

82. Interest : Money lender :: Salary : ?

a) Employees

b) Prisoner

c) Workers

d) Zamindar

83. Find the Odd number/letter from the given alternatives.

a) PQZX

b) CDLN

c) ACDE

d) MNPR

84. Number of Members can be nominated to the Upper House of Parliament by the President

of India is:

a) 12

b) 7

c) 2

d) 17

85. A man said to a lady, “The son of your only brother is the brother of my wife”. What is the

lady to the man?

a) Grand father

b) Maternal aunt

c) Mother

d) Sister of father-in-law

86. First clause in Memorandum of Association of company is:

a) Situation Clause

b) Name clause

c) Capital clause

d) Liability clause

87. Constitution day of India is celebrated on _______.

a) 26th November

b) 1

st January

c) 2

nd October

d) 15th August

88. The cancellation of a contract, due to impossibility of performance is:

a) Agency contract

b) Frustration of contract

c) Privity of contract

d) Quasi contract

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89. ___________schedule of the Constitution of India deals with allocation of powers and

functions between Unions & States . It contains three lists such as Union List(for Central

Govt.), States List(Power of State Govt.), and Concurrent list(Both Union and States).

a) Fourth

b) Sixth

c) Fifth

d) Seventh

90. What will come in place of question mark?

3, 2, 7, 6, 11, ?

a) 10

b) 2

c) 8

d) 4

91. Statement:

Some kings are queens.

All the queens are beautiful.

Conclusion:

i. All the kings are beautiful

ii. All the queens are kings

a) Neither (i) Nor (ii) follows

b) Only (ii) follows

c) Only (i) follows

d) Either (i) or (ii) follows

92. Domestic arrangement between husband and wife is not a contract under the Indian

contract Act, 1872 because:

a) There is no intention to create legal relationship

b) They are specifically excluded from the Indian contract Act, 1872

c) Consideration is absent

d) There is no consensus ad idem

93. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence:

1. police 2.punishment 3.crime 4.judge 5.judgement

a) 3,1,2,4,5

b) 3,1,4,5,2

c) 5,4,3,2,1

d) 1,2,4,3,5

94. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence:

1.cut 2.put on 3.mark 4.measure 5.tailor

a) 3,1,5,4,2

b) 2,4,3,1,5

c) 1,3,2,4,5

d) 4,3,1,5,2

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95. Find the odd number/letter from the given alternatives:

a) 1090

b) 962

c) 626

d) 841

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1. _______ is the difference between the total addressable demands for external credit compared to

the overall supply of finance from the formal sources.

a. Assets gap

b. Liabilities gap

c. Finance gap

d. Credit gap

2. _____ is aimed at promoting entrepreneurship and job creation at the grassroots level, especially

keeping in mind the Scheduled casts, Scheduled Tribes and women.

a. The innovative India imitative

b. The start up India initiative

c. The make in India initiative

d. The stand up India initiative

3. Ease of doing Business Report is prepared by which of the following organisation?

a. South Asian Association for Regional Cooperative(SAARC)

b. World Bank

c. United Nations Organisations (UNO)

d. Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

4. The _____ is the gross fiscal deficit less net lending of the central government.

a. Capital account deficit

b. Gross Fiscal deficit

c. Net fiscal deficit

d. Current account deficit

5. The formula to calculate Net Domestics product is:

a. Government Expenditure + Depreciation

b. Gross National Product + Depreciation

c. Gross domestic Product + Depreciation

d. Gross domestic product - Depreciation

6. _____ is Gross domestic product (GDP) plus net factor income from abroad.

a. Gross National product

b. Net domestic product

c. Gross domestic product

d. Net national product

7. Plans and Policies of the organisations would be covered under which form of environment?

a. Political environment

b. Internal environment

c. External environment

d. Social environment

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8. In order to broaden the frontiers of Entrepreneurship Research , EDII has established ________ to

investigate into a range of issues surrounding small and medium enterprise sector.

a. Centre for Research in Entrepreneurship Education and Development(CREED)

b. Centre for Revolution in Entrepreneurship Emergence and Development (CREED)

c. Centre for Research in Entrepreneurship Excellence and Development(CREED)

d. Centre for Resurgence in Entrepreneurship Excellence and Development(CREED)

9. The organised component of money market consists of the _____, _______ and _______.

a. Only Reserve Bank of India

b. Reserve Bank of India and Commercial Banks

c. Commercial Banks and Cooperative banks

d. Reserve bank of India, Commercial Banks and cooperative Banks

10.________ is a long-term security yielding a fixed rate of interest, issued by a company and

secured against assets.

a. Preference share

b. Treasury Bills

c. Equity share

d. Debenture

11.When the change in supply is relatively less when compared to the change in price, we say

that the commodity has a ______.

a. Perfectly Inelastic Supply

b. Relatively Less-Elastic Supply

c. Relatively Greater – Elastic Supply

d. Perfectly Elastic Supply

12.The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of the government is termed as

____.

a. Net deficit

b. Gross deficit

c. Monetary deficit

d. Fiscal deficit

13.Under the _____, irrespective of any rise or fall in price of a commodity , the quality

demanded remains the same.

a. Perfectly Inelastic Demand

b. Relatively Elastic Demand

c. Perfectly Elastic Demand

d. Unitary Elastic Demand

14.The elements like growth, employment, inflation and interest rates would be covered under

which macro-environment factor?

a. Political

b. Economics

c. Social

d. Technological

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15.MUDRA under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana stands for?

a. Macro Units Development & Refinance Associate Ltd.

b. Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.

c. Macro Units Development & Restructuring Associate Ltd

d. Micro Units Development & Restructuring Agency Ltd

16.____ is an online procurement platforms for government ministries and departments, and

the mot widely used channel for public procurement in India.

a. Government e Marketplace

b. Government e Manufacturing place

c. Government e Manufacturing Plan

d. Government e Model place

17.___ is a market structure with a small number of firms, none of which can keep the others

from having significant influence.

a. Monopoly

b. Oligopoly

c. Duopoly

d. Monopolistic Competition

18.When fiscal deficit is financed by borrowing from ______, it is called deficit financing ot

money creation.

a. Public sector banks

b. Private Sector Banks

c. Regional Rural banks

d. Reserve Bank of India

19.CSO stands for ________ .

a. Central Sample Organisation

b. Central Sample Office

c. Central Statistics Office

d. Central statistical Organisation

20.The formula for calculating Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE)is:

a. Household Final Consumption Expenditure / Private Non-Profit Institutions Serving

Households Final Consumption Expenditure

b. Household Final Consumption Expenditure + Private Non-Profit Institutions Serving

Households Final Consumption Expenditure

c. Household Final Consumption Expenditure - Private Non-Profit Institutions Serving

Households Final Consumption Expenditure

d. Household Final Consumption Expenditure X Private Non-Profit Institutions Serving

Households Final Consumption Expenditure

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21.EDII stands for

a. Entrepreneurship Design Institute of India

b. Entrepreneurs Development India Institute

c. Entrepreneurship Development India Institute

d. Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India

22.Credit Guarantee Scheme is covered under which factor of Enabling Environment for

MSME in India?

a. Direct Government Support

b. Infrastructure Support

c. Legal & Regulatory framework

d. Indirect Government support

23.The long form of the sentence , ‘ASPIRE’ is:

a. A Scheme for promoting Inventions & Rural Education

b. A Scheme for Prospering Innovation & Regional Entrepreneurship

c. A Scheme for Promoting Innovations & Rural Entrepreneurship

d. A Scheme for Promoting Innovation & Regional Excellence

24.In original, business is a system by which it produces goods and service for the satisfaction

of wants, by using several inputs, such as, raw material, capital, labour etc, From the

environment . This statement refers to which of the following nature of business environment?

a. Creative Approach

b. Social Responsibility Approach

c. System Approach

d. Instructive Approach

25.In the Union Budget presented on July 5, 2019, for ease of access to credit for _____, the

Government has introduced providing of loans upto Rs.1 crore within 59 minutes.

a. Public sector Undertakings

b. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise

c. Multinational Corporation

d. Large Business enterprise

26.The Law of demand governs the relationship between the ____ and the _______.a.

a. Desire and Ability

b. Quantity demanded and Desire

c. Quantity demanded and Price

d. Desire and Price

27.Demographics like population growth , age, distribution and attitudes toward safety and

health consciousness are covered under which macro-environment factor?

a. Social

b. Political

c. Economic

d. Technological

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28.______ are receipts of the government which create liabilities or reduce financial assets,

e.g., market borrowing , recovery of loan, etc.

a. Capital Receipts

b. Revenue Receipts

c. Revenue Exports

d. Donations to Governments

29._______ is the total monetary or market value of all the finishes goods and service

produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period.

a. Net National product at Marked Price

b. Net domestic product

c. Gross domestic product

d. Net National product at Factor Cost

30.Stand-up India scheme for financing SC/ST and / or women Entrepreneurship is facilitated

through _____.

a. Industrial Finance Corporate of India

b. Small Industries Development Bank of India

c. Reserve bank of India

d. Rural banks

31.The ‘Make in India ’ Initiative was launched in _______.

a. Sep-14

b. Sep-16

c. Sep-18

d. Sep-19

32.Loans received from foreign governments are covered under ____.

a. Income from Exports

b. Revenue budget

c. Donations

d. Capital Budget

33.Under Non-Banking Finance company a /an ______means any company which is a

financial institution carrying on as its principle business the acquisition of securities.

a. Infrastructure Finance Company

b. Asset finance company

c. Investment Company

d. Loan company

34.At ______ the quantity of goods supplied is equal to the quantity of goods.

a. Equilibrium price

b. Government price

c. Economy price

d. Premium price

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36. The Government of India has launched the _____ with an investment of Rs.50,000 crore aimed

at envelopment of irrigation sources fro providing a permanent solution from drought.

a. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Suryodaya Yojana

b. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Suraksha Yojana

c. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana

d. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Suyojit Yojana

37. In September 2018, ____ was launched under Ayushman Bharat to provide coverage of up

to Rs.5,00,000 to more than 100 million vulnerable families.

a. National Health Promotion Scheme

b. National Health Prevention Scheme

c. New Health Protection Scheme

d. National Health Protection Scheme

38. Small Finance Banks are licensed under section 22 of the __.

a. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

b. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

c. Indian Council Act, 1872

d. Reserve Bank of India Act,1935

39. City Union Bank is covered under which of the following categories?

a. Public Sector Bank

b. New Private Sector Bank

c. Old Private Sector Bank

d. None of the above

40. Which method of calculating National Income has the risk of ‘Double Counting’?

a. Expenditure Method

b. Income Method

c. Product Method

d. Profit Method

41. Windfall gains like, prizes won, lotteries etc. Should not be included in the estimation of

national income is the precaution to be followed under which of the following methods of

computing national income?

a. Income Method

b. Expenditure method

c. Product Method

d. Profit method

42. If quantity supplied changes by a lower percentage than a percentage change in price, it is

termed as:

a. Relatively Less-Elastic Supply

b. Relatively Greater-Elastic Supply

c. Perfectly Inelastic Supply

d. Unitary Elastic Supply

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43. In India , the _______ is the apex banking institution that regulates the monetary policy in

the country.

a. Oriental Bank of Commerce

b. Canara Bank

c. Reserve Bank of India

d. State Bank of India

44. The Revenue Budget records all _____ and ________.

a. Revenue receipts and capital expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure and capital expenditure

c. Revenue receipts and revenue expenditure

d. Revenue receipts and capital receipts

45. Green Revolution Programme was launched in which of the following five year plans of

India?

a. Tenth Five Year Plan

b. Eight Five Year Plan

c. First Five Year Plan

d. Third Five Year Plan

46. The formula to compute GNP at Market Prices is:

a. GNP at Market Prices = GDP at Market prices + Depreciation

b. GNP at Market Prices = GDP at Market Prices – Net Income From Abroad

c. GNP at Market Prices = GDP at Market Prices + Net Income from Abroad

d. GNP at Market Prices = GNP at Market Prices + Depreciation

47. Which of the following is/are considered for calculating National Income according to the

Expenditure Method?

a. Consumption Expenditure; Investment Expenditure ; Government Expenditure and Net Exports

b. Consumption Expenditure

c. Net Exports and Consumption Expenditure

d. Government expenditure, Investment Expenditure and Net Exports.

48. If ep = 0, then it signifies:

a. Perfectly Elastic Demand

b. Unitary Elastic Demand

c. Perfectly Inelastic Demand

d. Relatively Inelastic Demand

49. Which of the following needs to be deduced to derive NDP from GDP?

a. Net profit

b. Net sales

c. Net loss

d. Depreciation

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50. All receipts and expenditure that in general do not entail sale or creation of assets are

included under the______.

a. Profit and Loss Account

b. Revenue Account

c. Sales account

d. Capital account

51. E-Sanchit , an online application system, under the _____ has been implemented in order

to facilitate traders to submit all supporting documents electronically with digital signature.

a. Single Window Initiative for Trade (SWIFT)

b. Single Window Interface for Trade (SWIFT)

c. Single Window Innovative for Trade (SWIFT)

d. Single Window Incentive for Trade (SWIFT)

52. Which of the following is not the affiliated office is Ministry of Corporate Affairs?

a. Serious Fraud Investigation Office

b. Central Statistics Office

c. Indian Institution of Corporate Affairs

d. Competition Commission of India

53. ‘No change in the seller’s expectation regarding future prices’ is the assumption of which of

the following laws of economics?

a. Law of Demand

b. Law of Diminishing Returns to scale

c. Law of Increasing Returns to scale

d. Law of supply

54. ‘Estimating net value added by each producing enterprise as well as each industrial sector

and adding up the net value added by the sectors’, is a step considered for calculating National

Income under which of the following methods?

a. Profit Method

b. Income Method

c. Expenditure Method

d. Value Added Method

55. _______ is expenditure incurred on by business firms on

a). New plants

b). Adding to the stocks of inventories and

c). On newly constructed houses

a. Net exports

b. Investment expenditure

c. Consumption Expenditure

d. None of the above

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56. National skill development corporation was set up by ________

a. Ministry of statistics and Programme Implementation

b. Ministry of Agriculture

c. Ministry of Human Resource Development

d. Ministry of Finance

57. _____ give power to the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of

India for meeting the expenditure during the financial year.

a. Appropriation Bill

b. Ordinary Bill

c. Finance Bill

d. Constitution Amendment Bill

58. Stand Up India Scheme is Anchored by which of the following?

a. Department of Science and Technology

b. Department of Higher Education

c. Department of Financial services

d. Department of Social Welfare

59. Banks are classified into ______.

a. Four Categories

b. Five Categories

c. Six Categories

d. Seven Categories

60. Recognising the need for skill development in India, which of the following policies was

formulated by the Government of India in 2009?

a. National skill Growth Policy

b. National Social Development Policy

c. National skill Innovation Policy

d. National Skill development policy

61. ________ means a schedule of possible prices and amounts that would be sold at each

price.

a. Supply

b. Sales

c. Profit

d. Demand

62. When there is an excess of exports over imports , it is called________.

a. Unfavourable Balance of Payment

b. Favourable Balance of Trade

c. Unfavourable Balance of Trade

d. Favourable Balance of Payment

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63. The ___ states that a firm will produce and offer to sell greater quantities of a product or

service as the price of that product or service rises, other things being equal.

a. Law of Diminishing Returns to Scale

b. Law of Supply

c. Law of Variable Proportions

d. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

64. The formulate to calculate NDP at factor cost is:

a. NDP at Factor Cost = Gross Valued Added at Factor Cost – Depreciation.

b. NDP at Factor Cost = Gross Valued Added / Depreciation

c. NDP at Factor Cost = Gross Value Added at Factor Cost * Depreciation

d. NDP at Factor Cost = Gross Value Added at Factor Cost + Depreciation

65. In 1978 , UTI was de-linked from the RBI and the ________ took over the regulatory and

administrative control place in place of RBI.

a. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

b. Industrial Finance Corporation of India

c. Industrial Development Bank of India

d. Small Industries Development Bank of India

66. Contingency Fund is at the disposal of the _____.

a. Chief Minister

b. President

c. Cabinet Minister

d. Prime Minister

67. The formula to calculate Income Elasticity of Demand is:

a. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded * Percentage Change in Income

b. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded - Percentage Change in Income

c. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded + Percentage Change in Income

d. Percentage Change in Quantity Demanded /Percentage Change in Income

68. All revenues raised by the government , money borrowed and receipts from loans given by

the government flow into the _______.

a. Consolidated Fund of India

b. Gross Fund in India

c. State Government Fund of India

d. Net fund of India

69. If ep < 1, it signifies :

a. Relatively Inelastic Demand

b. Perfectly Elastic Demand

c. Perfectly Inelastic Demand

d. Unitary Elastic Demand

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70. If the total expenditure of the government exceeds its total revenue and non-revenue receipts

in a financial year , then the gap is the _______ for the financial year.

a. Monetary deficit

b. Turnover deficit

c. Fiscal deficit

d. Capital deficit

71. The Government of India in the backdrop of major failures of non-banking financial companies

, phenomenon of vanishing companies , plantation companies and stock market scams decided to

set up which of the following?

a. Serious Fraud Investigation office

b. Central Statistics office

c. Competition commission of India

d. Indian institute of corporate affairs.

72. Who among the following presented the First budget of Independent India?

a. Mr.R.K Shamnukham Chetty

b. Mr.C.D.Deshmukh

c. Mr.P.C.Mahalanobis

d. Mr.V.K.R.V. Rao

73. Which of the following is the implementing agency of Pre-Departure Oriented

Program(PDOP)Program?

a. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural development

b. Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India

c. Industrial Finance Corporation of India

d. National skill development corporation

74. The production of goods for self consumption is valued at ________ while calculating national

income through Product Method.

a. Historical Prices

b. Prevailing Market Prices

c. Prevailing Cost Prices

d. None of the above

75. ‘No Concept of the Consumer preference’ is the assumption of which of the following forms of

market competition?

a. Perfect competition

b. Monopoly

c. Oligopoly

d. Duopoly

76. A commodity with _____ has an infinite elasticity.

a. Relatively greater Elastic supply

b. Relatively less elastic supply

c. Perfectly Elastic supply

d. Unitary Elastic supply

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77. The formula to compute Net National Product at Factor Cost is:

a. NNP at Market price + Indirect Taxes + Subsidies

b. NNP at Market price - Indirect Taxes - Subsidies

c. NNP at Market price - Indirect Taxes + Subsidies

d. NNP at Market price – Subsidies

78. The formula to calculate Personal Income is:

a. National Income – Undistributed Corporate profits + Profits Taxes – Social Security Contribution

–Interest on Public Debt.

b. National Income +Undistributed Corporate profits + Profits Taxes + Social Security Contribution.

c. National Income – Undistributed Corporate profits - Profits Taxes – Social Security Contribution

+ Transfer Payments + Interest on Public Debt.

d. National Income – Undistributed Corporate profits + Profits Taxes – Social Security Contribution

–Transfer Payments

79. The formula to compute GNP at Market Price is:

a. GNP at Market price = GDP at Market price – Net income from Abroad

b. GNP at Market price = GDP at Market price + Net income from Abroad

c. GNP at Market price = GNP at Market price + Depreciation

d. GNP at Market price = GDP at Market price + Depreciation

80. _______ if any, must be deduced from the value added while calculating national income as

per the Product method, as it does not result into real increase in output.

a. Stock Appreciation

b. Stock Depreciation

c. Stock lose due to theft

d. Stock Insured

81. When the change in supply is relatively more when compared to the change in price, we say

that the commodity has ________.

a. Relatively Less elastic supply

b. Perfectly Elastic Supply

c. Unitary Elastic supply

d. Relatively greater elastic supply

82. ____ means a schedule of possible prices and amounts that would be sold at each price.

a. Demand

b. Supply

c. sales

d. Profit

83.The production value of the transport and communication is taken into consideration for

computation of national income under which of the following method?

a. Income method

b. Profit method

c. Expenditure method

d. Product method

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84. What is the formula to calculate GDP at market price?

a. GNP at market price + Net Indirect taxes

b. GNP at Market price + Net Income from Abroad

c. GNP at market price – Net Income from Abroad

d. GNP at market price – Net Indirect Taxes

85. In 2003, Kotak Mahindra Finance Ltd. Received a banking licence from RBI and became the

first ______ to be converted into a bank

a. Mutual Funds

b. Insurance company

c. Non-banking Finance company

d. Asset Reconstruction company

86. The long form of SUUTI is:

a. Specified Undertakings of the Unit Trust of India

b. Special Undertakings of the Unit Turnover of India

c. Special Undertakings of the Unit Trust of India

d. Specified Undertakings of the Union Trust of India

87. ‘No Change in Consumers preferences’ is the assumptions of which of the following laws of

economics?

a. Law of Demand

b. Law of Supply

c. Law of increasing Returns to scale

d. Law of Diminishing Returns to Scale

88. While adding up the value of output of various sectors for calculating of National income under

Product method , care should be exercised to avoid the problem of ________.

a. Single counting

b. Triple counting

c. Quadruple counting

d. Double counting

89.When quantity demanded of a commodity increases as a result of fall in the price, it is called:

a. Growth in demand

b. Increase in demand

c. Expansion in demand

d . Rise in demand

90. The ________ is the market price where the quantity of goods supplied is equal to the quantity

of goods demanded.

a. Nominal Price

b. Attractive price

c. Equilibrium price

d. Exact price

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91. Which of the following formula would be used to calculate Disposable Income?

a. Private Income – Direct Taxes

b. Private Income + Direct Taxes

c. Personal Income – Direct taxes

d. Personal Income + Direct taxes

92. Which of the following was the first ‘non-UTI’ mutual fund established in June 1987?

a. ICICI Mutual Fund

b. PNB Mutual Fund

c. SBI Mutual Fund

d. HDFC Mutual Fund

93.The long form of CCEA is:

a. Cabinet Commission on External Affairs

b. Core Commission on External Affairs

c. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

d. Core Committee on Economic Affairs

94. Consumer spending less on luxury items on car due to recession will fall under which of the

following business environment?

a. Social environment

b. Technological environment

c. Political environment

d. Economic environment

95. Which of the following Committee’s recommended opening up of the insurance sector to

private players in India?

a. NL Mithra Committee

b. Kumaramangalam Bira committee

c. Malhotra committee

d. Uday Kotak Committee

96. If ep > 1, then it signifies:

a. Relatively Elastic Demand

b. Perfectly Inelastic Demand

c. Relatively Inelastic Demand

d. Unitary Elastic Demand

97. Salaries, subsidies and interest payments are part of _____ union budget.

a. Indirect Expenditure

b. Revenue expenditure

c. Direct expenditure.

d. Capital expenditure

98.The demand for very costly and cheap goods is generally _____.

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a. Perfectly Elastic

b. Relatively Elastic

c. Inelastic

d. Unitary Elastic

99. Which of the following equations will be used to compute percentage change in quantity

demanded?

a. Change in Quantity + Original Quantity x 100

b. Change in Quantity / Original Quantity x 100

c. Change in Quantity x Original Quantity x 100

d. Change in Quantity -Original Quantity x 100

100. The Mutual Fund industry in India started in 1963 with formation of UTI in 1963by an Act of

Parliament and functioned under the regulatory and administrative control of the ______.

a. Industrial Finance Corporation of India

b. Small Industries Development Bank of India

c. State Bank of India

d. Reserve Bank of India

101. During which of the following five year plans , National Agricultural Policy, 2000 was framed?

a. Fifth Five year plan

b. Eleventh Five year plan

c. Tenth Five year plan

d. Ninth Five year plan

102. If ep<1 , it signifies:

a. Relatively Elastic Demand

b. Perfectly Elastic Demand

c. Perfectly Inelastic Demand

d. Unitary Elastic Demand

103. The formula to compute Net National Product at Market prices is:

a. Cabinet Minister

b. GDP at Market price – Depreciation

c. GNP at Market price + Depreciation

d. GNP at Market price - Depreciation.

104. When demanded changes not because at price but because of changes in other

determinants of demands, it is case of either ________ or __________ in demand.

a. Increase, diminish

b Increase, Decrease

c. Expansion, Contraction

d. Rise, fall

105. The long form of IRDAI is:

a. Insurance Regulations and Distributions Authority of India

b. Insurance Regulatory and Development Association of India

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c. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India

d. Insurance Regulations and Development Assembly of India

106. In 2007, the Government of India launched the ___ initiative to improve the country’s

overall crop production , especially that of rice , wheat and pulses.

a. National Food Security Mission

b. National Food Social Mission

c. National Food Storage Mission

d. National Food Soaring Mission

107. Which of the is/are the element/elements of Capital Budget?

a. Only Capital receipts

b. Capital Receipts and Revenue Expenditure

c. Only Capital Expenditure

d. Capital Receipts and Capital Expenditure

108. All revenues raised by the government , money borrowed and receipts from loans given by

the government flow into the _____.

a. State Government Fund of India

b. Gross Fund of India

c. Net Fund of India

d. Consolidated Fund of India

109. “Identifying the producing enterprise and classifying them into individual sectors according

to their activities ”, is a step followed in which of the following method of computing national

income?

a. Product method

b. Profit method

c. Expenditure method

d. Income method

110. Which of the following elements are considered for computing national income according to

Expenditure method?

a. Consumption Expenditure ; Investments Expenditure and Government Expenditure

b. Consumption Expenditure and Investments Expenditure

c. Consumption Expenditure and Net exports

d. Consumption Expenditure ; Investments Expenditure ; Government Expenditure and Net

exports

111. Supply represents how much _____ can offer

a. Household

b. Market

c. Firm

d. None of the above

112. The _______ is to account for flows for those transaction where the government is merely

acting as a banker.

a. Public Account

b. Gross Fund of India

c. Net Fund of India

d. Consolidated Fund of India

113. The formula to compute GNP at Market Price:

a. GNP at Market Price = GDP At Market Prices – Net Income from Abroad

b. GNP at Market Price = GDP At Market Prices + Depreciation

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c. GNP at Market Price = GDP At Market Prices + Net Income from Abroad

d. GNP at Market Price = GNP At Market Prices + Depreciation

114. A Fashion designer who creates bell-bottom, striped pants will not succeed in an

environment where straight-leg, solid coloured pants are desired. This event would be covered

under which of the following ?

a. Political factors

b. Technological factors

c. Social Factors

d. Economic Factors

115. ______ is a statutory regulatory body entrusted with the responsibility to regulate the Indian

capital markets.

a. Securities and Earnings Boards of India

b. Securities and Exchange Board of India

c. Competition Commissions of India

d. Serious Fraud Investigation office

116. The problems of Double Counting may arise in which of the following methods of

calculating national income?

a. Profit Method

b. Income Method

c. Product Method

d. Expenditure Method

117. Which of the following is not considered for computations of national income under Income

Methods?

a. Interests

b. Wages

c. Government Expenditure

d. Rent

118. For a commodity with a _______ the change in quantity supplied of a commodity is exactly

equal to the change in its prics.

a. Relatively Greater-Elastic Supply

b. Perfectly Elastic supply

c. Relatively Less-Elastic Supply

d. Unitary Elastic Supply

119. Which of the following were emphasised in Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR),1956

a. 1. Speeding up the pace of industrialisation and

2. Expansion of public sector and growth of co-operative sector

b. 1. Speeding up the pace of industrialisation:

2. Expansion of public sector and growth of co-operative sector,

3. State to take up the responsibility of setting up new industrial set up and development of

transport facilities and

4.Prevent private monopolies and concentration of economic process in hands of few number

of individuals.

120. The government of India has come out with the _____ to provide financial assistance for

transport and marketing of agricultural products in order to boost agriculture exports.

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a. Transport and Marketing Assistance Scheme

b. Travel and marketing Aviation Scheme

c. Transport and marketing arrangement scheme

d. National health performance scheme

121. Competition Commission of India is affiliated office of _____.

a. Ministry of Finance

b. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

c. Ministry of corporate Affairs

d. Ministry of Agriculture

122. A Service or commodity has a _______ if a given quantity of it can be supplied whatever

might be the price.

a. Unitary Elastic supply

b. Relatively Less-Elastic supply

c. Perfectly Inelastic supply

d. Relatively Greater- Elastic Supply

123. Transfer payments such as gifts, donations, scholarship etc. Should not be included in the

estimation of national income is the precaution to be followed under which of the following

methods of computing national income?

a. Product method

b. Expenditure method

c. Income method

d. Profit method

124. Elasticity of demand:

a. Percentage in quantity demand – Percentage Change in Price

b. Percentage change in Quantity Demanded / Percentage Change in Price

c. Percentage in Quantity Demanded + Percentage Change in Price

d. Percentage change in Quantity Demanded x Percentage Change in Price

125. “The product in the market are homogenous i.e. they are completely identical”, is the

assumption of which form of market competition?

a. Monopoly

b. Duopoly

c. Monopolistic Competition

d. Perfect Competition

126. The ______ aims at promoting entrepreneurship among the women and scheduled castes

and tribes . The schemes is anchored by Department of Financial Services , Ministry of

Finance , Government of India.

a. Make New India

b. Make in India

c. Stand up India

d. None of the above

127. Commercial banks are regulated under the _________.

a. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

b. Indian Contract Act,1872

c. Banking Regulation Act, 1949

d. Indian Companies Act, 2013

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128. The long form of DPIIT is:

a. department for promotion of industry and internal trade

b. department for promotion of innovation and international trade

c. department for promotion of industry and international trade

d. department for proliferation innovation and internal trade

129. Centurion Bank and times bank were merged with ______

a. UCO Bank

b. ICICI Bank

c. HDFC Bank

d. State Bank of India

130. The Revenue Budget records all _____ and ___.

a. Revenue receipts and Capital Expenditure

b. Revenue receipts and Capital receipts

c. Revenue Expenditure and Capital expenditure

d. Revenue Receipt and Revenue Expenditure

131. ________ is expenditure incurred on by business firms on

a) new plants

b) adding to the stock of inventories and

c) on newly constructed houses

a. Net exports

b. Investment expenditure

c. consumption expenditure

d. none of above

132. The proposal of government for levy of new taxes, modifications of the existing tax

structure or continuation of the existing tax structure beyond the period approved by the

Parliament are submitted to parliament through__________.

a. Constitution amendment bill

b. Ordinary bill

c. Appropriation bill

c. Finance bill

133. The latin phrase ’Ceteris Paribus’ means

a. Other things being changeable

b. No presence of any factor

c. Other things remaining the same

d. None of the above

134. The formula to calculate GDP at Factor Cost:

a. GDP at Factor Cost = Net Value Added x Depreciation

b. GDP at Factor Cost = Net Value Added / Depreciation

c. GDP at Factor Cost = Net Value Added - Depreciation

d. GDP at Factor Cost = Net Value Added + Depreciation

135. Which of the following is not a bottleneck in entrepreneurial growth?

a. Too much noise

b. Lack of money

c. Proper Planning

d. A small or non existent network

136. Imperial Bank was taken over by ______ in 1955.

a. ICICI bank

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b. State Bank of India

c. Canara Bank

d. Punjab National Bank

137. When a small change in price of a product causes a major change in its demand , it is said

to be _____.

a. Relatively Elastic demand

b. Perfectly Inelastic demand

c. Perfectly Elastic demand

d. Relatively Inelastic demand

138. Dhanlaxmi bank is covered under which of the following category?

a. Public Sector Bank

b. New Private Sector bank

c. Old Private sector bank

d. None of the above

139. Giffen Goods were named after:

a. Sir Robert Giffin

b. Sir Tom Giffin

c. Sir Allan Giffin

d. Sir JB Giffin

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1. National Pension System (NPS) subscribers are to be allowed partial withdrawal for covering

expenses for COVID-19 Treatment. Which organization manages NPS?

a. Securities and Exchange Board of India

b. Life Insurance Corporation of India

c. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority

d. Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority of India

2. Which is the venue of the main national event for the sixth International Yoga Day, 2020?

a. Leh

b. Guwahati

c. Ranchi

d. New Delhi

3. The Cabinet approved the temporary suspension of the MPLAD (Members of Parliament Local Area

Development Scheme) Fund for how many years, amidst the corona virus pandemic?

a. Four

b. Three

c. One

d. Two

4. World Health Organization (WHO) declared COVID-19 as a pandemic. Which disease was

previously declared as pandemic by WHO?

a. H1N1 Influenza

b. HIV

c. Swine Flu

d. Spanish Flu

5. Mr.Pravin Rao has been appointed as the new Chairman of which of the following Organization?

a. FICCI

b. CII

c. NASSCOM

d. PHD Chamber of Commerce and Industry

6. Which Indian Public Sector Bank Waved the minimum balance requirement for all savings bank (SB)

accounts?

a. Punjab National Bank

b. Canara Bank

c. State Bank of India

d. Union Bank of India

7. Anita Raina is associated with which sports, who was in the news recently?

a. Squash

b. Badmiton

c. Table-Tennis

d. Tennis

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8. Which former Chief Justice of India has been nominated to Rajya Sabha?

a. Ranjan Gogoi

b. T.S. Thakur

c. Jagadish Singh Khehar

d. Dipak Misra

9. AN Initiative of ‘Arogya Setu Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS) Service’ has been launched

by the centre in associated with which state government?

a. Rajasthan

b. Tamil Nadu

c. Odisha

d. Kerela

10. Who is the Chairperson of the high-level panel recently setup to prepare an Investigation

manual for Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)?

a. N K Singh

b. Injeti Srinivas

c. U K Sinha

d. Tapan Ray

11. The Supreme Court has directed the Central Government to provide PPEs to doctors,

medical staff attending to Corona Virus patients. What does PPE stands for?

a. Protective Patient evaluation

b. Personal Patients evaluation

c. Personal Protective equipment

d. Protective Patient equipment

12. What is the name of the online challenge for students, launched by the innovation cell of

MHRD and AICTE, for developing solution s to the corona virus pandemic?

a. SAMADHAN

b. CHUNAUTI

c. SAMRIDDHI

d. SOOCHNA

13. Masatsugu Asakawa is the President of which International Financial Institution, which has

also assured $2.2 billion assistance to India?

a. Asian development bank

b. BRICS bank

c. World Economic Forum

d. World bank

14. The year 2020 marked as _______ anniversary of Jallianwala Bagh Massacre?

a. 102nd

b. 101st

c. 100th

d. 103rd

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15. Avani Chathurvedi ,Bhawanna Kanth and Mohana Singh , who recently received the ‘Nari

Shakthi Puraskar’ award , are associated with which profession?

a. Fighter pilots

b. Army Officers

c. Naval captains

d. Sportsperson

16. Name the food delivery business company which is acquired by Zomato for $206 million

recently.

a. Uber eats

b. Holachef

c. Freshmenu

d. Foodpanda

17. Which city has been adjudged as the cleanest for the 4th time in the latest

cleanliness survey of the union government?

a. Bhopal

b. Indore

c. Rajkot

d. Surat

18. RBI has restricted the withdrawal limit in Yes bank during the moratorium period to

Rs.____ per account.

a. Rs.35,000

b. Rs.60,000

c. Rs.75,000

d. Rs.50,000

19. Supreme court has lifted ban on trading in cryptocurrency by cancelling the circular

of Reserve bank of India’s (RBI) issued in 2018. The Cryptocurrency runs on which technology?

a. Cyber Tech

b. Cloud Compute

c. Blockchain

d. Artificial Intelligence

20. Who appointed as India’s First Chief of Defence Staff?

a. Deepak kapoor

b. Bipin Rawat

c. Bikram Singh

d. VK Singh

21. The government has renamed Pravasi Bharatiya Kendra in a solemn tribute to

which Minister

a. Arun jaitley

b. Manohar Parrikar

c. Sushma Swaraj

d. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

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22. The Ministry of corporate affairs (MCA) has introduced a scheme namely “LLP

settlement Scheme,2020” for LPP’s by allowing a one-time condonation of delay in filing forms

with the Registrar of Office (ROC). The LLP denotes?

a. Limited Liability Property

b. Limited Liability Partnership

c. Large Limited partnership

d. Listed Liability Partnership

23. Government made RFID tag compulsory for all four wheelers in India. RFID stands

for _____.

a. Resource Frequency Identification

b. Research Forum Identification

c. Radio Frequency Identification

d. Reverse fee Identity

24. Who presented the 90th Union Budget for 2020-2021 in India?

a. Smriti Irani

b. Nirmala Sitharaman

c. Amit Shah

d. Anurag Singh Thakur

25. Who is the current Speaker of 17th Lok Sabha?

a. Sumithra Mahajan

b. Om birla

c. M.Venkaiah Naidu

d. Meira Kumar

26. In which Indian city, the India Post launched India’s 1st digital parcel locker service.

a. New Delhi

b. Kolkata

c. Ranchi

d. Chennai

27. Name the person who has been appointed as 1st ever ambassador of IDFC First

Bank .

a. Akshay Kumar

b. Salman Khan

c. Amitabh Bachan

d. Ranveer singh

28. In light of the decision taken by the Union Government on removal of Article 370 of

Indian Constitution , which of the following is correct?

a. Jammu & Kashmir is Union Territory and Ladakh is a state

b. Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh are two separate Union Territories

c. Jammu & Kashmir is a state and Ladakh is Union Territory

d. Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh are two separate states

189

TEAM - CS ASPIRANT

29. Name the country which is going to host he new edition of AIBA(International

Boxing Association) world cup 2020?

a. Russia

b. China

c. Cuba

d. Indonesia

30. Name the person who heads the Committee which recommended the Concession

of commercial operation of train service like Rajdhani/Shadabti to private parties.

a. Kaushik basu

b. Bibek debroy

c. Gita gobinath

d. Abhijit Banerjee

31. In the month of May 2020 , which of the following tropical cyclone touched odisha and west

Bengal?

a. Amphan

b. Luban

c. Megh

d. Fani

32. The Central Government has launched India’s biggest evacuation Plan to bring back Indian

citizen stranded in foreign countries . What is the name of the misson?

a. Stranded Indian Mission

b. Vande Bharat Mission

c. Smart India Mission

d. Bharat Nagrik Mission

33. Central Government has announced to raise the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit in

defence Manufacturing under automatic route from 49% to ____%.

a. 51

b. 74

c. 100

d. 65

34. Name the programme which was launched for online education (1 to 12) announced under

“Atmanibhar Bharat Abhiyaan”.

a. PM e-Kalyan

b. PM e-Suraksha

c. PM e-Anhiyan

d. PM e-Vidhya

190

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35. Union Finance Minister Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman announced Economic Stimulus package of

Rs.20Lakhs crore in how many tranches?

a. Three

b. Five

c. Four

d. Six

36. Who is the present Union Health Minister who recently appointed as the chairman of the World

Health Organization(WHO) 34-Member Executive Board?

a. Amit Shah

b. Dr. Harsh Vardhan

c. Nirmala Sitharaman

d. Piyush Goyal

37. Name the 1st India Tennis Player who has won the Fed Cup heart award 2020 for

Asia/Oceania Zone?

a. Leander Paes

b. Sania Mirza

c. Rohan Bopanza

d. Vijay Amritraj

38. Recently, US based equity giant KKR, has bought _______% Stake in Jio platforms.

a. 2.32

b. 5.32

c. 7.32

d. 9.32

39. Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

a. Raghuram Rajan

b. Tapan Roy

c. Urijit Patel

d. Shaktikanta Das

40. Ministry of Labour & Employment has decided to reduce the Employee’s provident fund

contributions to ____% from the existing 12% for three months till July,2020.

a. 5

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

41. Name the person who authored the book titled “Wuhan Diary”: Dispatches from the

quarantined city?

a. Yiyun Li

b. Hua YU

c. Lu Xun

d. Fang Fang

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42. On January 2,2020 Prakash Parv was celebrated as birth anniversary of which Sikh Guru?

a. Guru Harkrishan Sahib

b. Guru Har Rai

c. Guru Gobind Singh

d. Guru Teg Bahadur

43. Name the person who has been appointed as the chairman of NABARD recently till July,2022?

a. Govinda Rajulu Chintala

b. Harsh Kumar Bhanwala

c. P.V.S Suryakumar

d. Shaji KV

44. From which Indian organization , the four Indian Air Force Pilots have been selected for

training in Russia for the ambitious Gaganyaan Manned Space Mission , that is going to be

launched in 2022?

a. The Marine Commandos(MARCOS)

b. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)

c. Indian Air Force(AIR)

d. Indian Navy

45. Para athlete Deepa Malik (1st women to win medal in Paralympic Games ) who announced

retirement is associated with which sports?

a. Triple Jump

b. Long Jump

c. Middle distance running

d. Shot put

46. Who among the following has recently appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner(CVC)?

a. Suresh Patel

b. Amita Pandove

c. Sanjay Kothari

d. Bimal Julka

47. Name the NASA Satellite which can give early warning signals for earthquake?

a. CIRES

b. Jason-1

c. Lava

d. Apollo

48. Where in China was the Corona Virus Diseases 2019 or COVID-19, First identified?

a. Wuhan

b. Shenzhou

c. Shanghai

d. Beijing

192

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49. External Affairs Minister Dr.S. Jaishankar has attended the BRICS foreign minister summit

recently. Who is the current chair of BRICS?

a. China

b. India

c. Brazil

d. Russia

50. Which Indian Shuttler has been named as the ambassador of Badminton World Federation’s “I

am Badminton ” campaign?

a. Parupalli Kashyap

b. Saina Nehwal

c. Srikanth Kidambi

d. PV Sindhu

51. Which of the following Indian Cricketer has been appointed as the ambassador of PokerStars

India.

a. Virat Kohli

b. Sachin Tendulkar

c. MS Dhoni

d. Rohit Sharma

52. Who is the current chairperson of IBBI?

a. Usha Thorat

b. AS Mehta

c. Tapan Roy

d. MS Sahoo

53. Who id the present Union Minister Of Road Transport and Highways?

a. Piyush Goyal

b. Nithin Jairam Gadkari

c. Nirmala Sitharaman

d. Amith Shah

54. In collaboration of which public sector bank, the government telecom operator BSNL has

launched Bharat InstaPay , UPI-based payment platform.

a. State bank of India

b. Allahabad Bank

c. UCO bank

d. Punjab National bank

55. NDMA stands for:

a. National Driving Management Authority

b. National Displacement Management Authority

c. National Diversity Management Authority

d. National Disaster Management Authority

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56. Irrfan Khan who passed away recently was suffering from which of the following Cancer

Diseases?

a. Neuroendocrine

b. Lymphoma

c. Colon

d. Basal Cell

57. Who declared COVID-19 as global Pandemic?

a. United Nation

b. Indian Embassy

c. Mumbai

d. WHO

58. Which of the following organisation has recently reported that the air pollution in India is 20-

years low?

a. National Aeronautics and Space Administration(NASA)

b. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

c. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

d. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

59. Recently, Government of Indian announced special economic package for various sectors

which is titled as__________

a. Atmasuraksha Bharat Abhiyan

b. Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan

c. Atmanirman Bharat Abhiyan

d. Atmakalyan Bharat Abhiyan

60. Name the company which has become the 1st member of India’s gas trading platform named

“Indian Gas Exchange(IGX)”?

a. Manikaran Power Limited

b. Reliance Power Limited

c. Indane Power Limited

d. Adani Power Limited

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CSEET ALL SUBJECTS 1000 MCQ - CS ASPIRANT

CurrentAffairs

LEGAL APTITUDE

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CODING DECODING

NUMBER / SYMBOL CODING

CLOCKS

NUMBER,RANKING & TIME SEQUENCE TEST

STATEMENT AND ASSUMPTIONS

ECONOMICS

BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT

CURRENT AFFAIRS

Comments

Post a Comment

Popular posts from this blog

CS Executive Corporate and Management Accounting Notes (CMA Short Summary Notes)

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Chapter 13 Arbitration and conciliation summary - JIGL Short Notes

Current
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